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Many Christians believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God, but not equal to God. They do, however, readily recognize the truth that Jehovah is God. This study will show from Scripture that Jesus Christ is both Jehovah, Who is spirit, and the manifestation of Jehovah. 

JESUS CHRIST IS JEHOVAH AS SPIRIT

We read in Jn. 4:24 that “God is spirit” (not a spirit, as the Greek does not have “a”). The Greek word “Theos” translated “God” is in reference to Jehovah, which is God’s name (this will be proved in a section below).  So Jehovah is spirit. As such we can know absolutely nothing of Him except that which He chooses to reveal.  And He has, in His infinite grace, revealed Himself in the Person of Jesus Christ Who, as this study will show, fulfills every office of Jehovah. That is to say, Christ manifests all that Jehovah is.

Let us  consider  Christ’s death on the cross. I believe that as we consider Ecc. 8:8 we will learn that even as Christ died on the cross He was God.  We read in Ecc. 8:8, “There is no man that hath power over the spirit to retain the spirit: neither hath he power in the day of death… .”  In other words, no man can determine when he will die by giving up the spirit that gives life. But we read in Matt. 27:50, “Jesus, when He had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost”.  In other words, Jesus did exactly what Solomon wrote that no man could do, i.e. He  determined his own time of death by yielding up the “ghost” i.e. the spirit that gives life. What we learn from this is that Jesus Christ was God even at the very time of His death. (For further evidence of that truth please see the paper on The Lamb of God).

I believe that because there is not one God Who is spirit and another God Who manifests that spirit, logic dictates that there is but one God who is Jehovah/Christ.

So we know that Christ was God during His earthly ministry.  Did God die when He gave up the ghost at the cross?  Yes and no. That is to say,  God manifest in the flesh did indeed die, but at the same time God, Who is eternal, did not die  because He is  spirit.  Again, there was not one God on earth manifesting  a different  God as spirit: there was, and always has been one God. Christ is that one God: He is  both  God manifest and at the same time God as spirit. We might say then, that even when Christ was in bodily form in the Old Testament and in heaven after His ascension, and in the flesh during His earthly ministry, Jesus Christ was always spirit. The very nature of God is spirit. Jesus Christ is God, Jesus Christ is now spirit and body

But some might object that because Christ was, and is,  in a body, He cannot be spirit.  Let us consider the Holy Spirit, Who is, of course, spirit. Matt. 3:16 records the “Spirit of God descending like a dove”.  In other words,  the Holy Spirit took on the form of a dove so that He could be seen.  But His basic nature was one of spirit. So too, because Jesus Christ is Jehovah, Who is spirit, His basic nature is spirit, even though He has taken on a bodily form.*

For further evidence that Christ was both Man and God during His earthly ministry, please see the paper on that subject.

JESUS CHRIST IS THE MANIFESTATION OF JEHOVAH

In Old Testament times Jehovah appeared to some in the form of a man. For example, in Gen. 18 Abraham spoke with Jehovah in the form of a man. Gen. 18:1, “and Jehovah appeared unto him….” (Abraham). Bearing in mind that Jehovah is spirit (John 4:24), Jehovah must have assumed some form in order to appear to Abraham. We learn in the next verse that Jehovah appeared to Abraham in the form of a man, “and he (Abraham) lift up his eyes and looked, and lo, three men stood by him”.  As the account of this meeting unfolds two of the “men” left and the third remained. Verse 22, “And the men turned their faces from thence and went to Sodom“. As we compare that with 19:1 we will see that only two of the “men” left. leaving one “Man” behind.,”And there came two angels to Sodom….”.

Let us take a brief look at the conversation recorded in Gen. 18:23-32 as I believe it will show that when we read in verses 18:23-32 of Abraham’s conversation, we know that it was indeed Jehovah in the form of man with Whom Abraham was speaking.  In verse 22 we read, “The men (two of them, see 19:1) turned their faces from thence, and went toward Sodom, but Abraham stood yet before Jehovah“.  In verse 26 after Abraham had asked God to spare Sodom for the sake of the righteous, we read, “And Jehovah said“. We learn from this that Abraham was speaking to Jehovah. In verse 27 we read, “I (Abraham) have taken upon me to speak unto Jehovah…..”. Here again, it is clear that Abraham was speaking to Jehovah. In verses 30, and 32 we read Abraham saying “let not Jehovah be angry and I will speak”. My point is that Jehovah took on the form of a man in Old Testament times in order to communicate with certain individuals.

Many  assume that Jesus Christ did not exist until He was born to Mary at the beginning of the New Testament. It was then that He took upon Himself  “the form of a servant” and it is His being in the form of a servant that leads some to the erroneous conclusion that He is not God. In the next section we will examine that incorrect conclusion that Christ did not exist until He was born to Mary. *

JESUS CHRIST IN THE OLD TESTAMENT

In Genesis 1:26 we read, “And God said, ‘Let us make man in Our image, after Our likeness….”. To correctly understand what is meant by the phrase “in Our image, after Our likeness” let us turn to Gen. 5:3 where we read the same phrase, “And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and begat a son in his own likeness after his image….”. When we read of Adam’s son being born in “his own likeness after his image” we understand that Adam’s son looked like Adam. So also, when God created man in His likeness after His image, we must understand that God created Man to look like Himself. Any other interpretation is without scriptural basis.

Since man was created to look like God, Who is spirit,  God obviously must have taken on a bodily form, otherwise He could not have created man to look like Himself. As we shall see in the next section, under the title “Savior”, Jehovah is the creator of man. Therefore, when we read of man looking like God, we are reading of man looking like Jehovah in bodily form. Again, I am suggesting that Jesus Christ is Jehovah in bodily form.

Let us continue for now with the scriptural evidence showing that Jehovah took on a bodily form in the Old Testament. In Gen. 3:8 we read, “And they (Adam and Eve) heard the voice of the Lord God walking in the garden in the cool of the day…”.  The Hebrew translated “voice” is “kohl”. It is often translated “voice”, but it is also translated “sound” and “noise” and “thunder”.  In other words, the meaning must be determined from the context. Consider for example, I Kings 14:6, “when Ahijah heard the sound of her feet…”. Obviously the sound of her feet was the sound of  her footsteps. Consider also II Kings 6:32, “…….Is not the sound of his master’s feet behind him?” Here too the sound of His master’s feet were, of course  the sound of his  footsteps. So too in Gen. 3:8, because we read that Adam and Eve heard the sound (Heb. “kohl”)  of Jehovah’s walking, we learn from the  context that it was Jehovah’s footsteps that they heard.  They could not have heard His footsteps, if He was not in bodily form, i.e. having feet.

 As discussed above, Gen. 18 describes the meeting between Jehovah, in the form of a man, with Abraham. Some have suggested that the One Abraham was addressing was not Jehovah, but a man sent by Jehovah. That however is not consistent with the fact that Abraham did indeed address the One to Whom he was speaking as “Jehovah”. Also, consider that Abraham, when left alone with Him after the two others had left, spoke to Jehovah. To assume that Abraham was speaking to a man sent by Jehovah is simply conjecture and unwarranted by the scriptural evidence.*

JESUS CHRIST IN THE NEW TESTAMENT

The New Testament also testifies to the truth that Christ is Jehovah in bodily form in Old Testament times.We read in John 8:14, “Jesus answered, ‘Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid, for I know where I came from and where I am going”. It is clear that Christ was going to return to heaven and therefore must have came from heaven. If He came from heaven, He must have been in heaven before He was born to Mary. In my opinion, this truth, along with the scriptures in the Old Testament which speak of Jehovah in bodily form helps to establish the fact that Jehovah when seen by men  in the Old Testament was Christ in bodily form.

 It is important to differentiate between Jehovah in bodily form and Jehovah in human form. Jehovah took on bodily form when He created man to look like Himself. He took on the form of a human being, i.e. flesh and blood, when He was born to Mary.

Let us look briefly at a New Testament verse that proves that Christ is Jehovah in human form in the New Testament. We read in Matthew 3:3, “For this is he (John the Baptist) that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, ‘The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make His path straight”. This is a quote from Isaiah 40:3 where we read, “The voice of him that crieth in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of Jehovah“. (The KJV has “the Lord” but the Hebrew is “Jehovah”.) The one for Whom John the Baptist was preparing the way was Christ. John the Baptist was fulfilling the prophecy of Isaiah who wrote that he would prepare the way for Jehovah. By comparing the prophecy (Is. 40:3) with the fulfillment of prophecy (Matt. 3:3) we see one reason for believing that Christ is Jehovah in bodily form. Other, more compelling reasons will be presented as we continue in this study.

O. Q. Sellers has written an excellent article, Call His Name Jesus. I offer the following paragraphs from that article.

“When Moses was directed by God to search out the land of Canaan, he was told to select one man from each tribe who was already a tribal ruler (Numbers 13:2). The one selected from the tribe of Ephraim was Oshea, the son of Nun (Num. 13:8). His name meant “Savior”, and to his name Moses prefixed the shortened form of Jehovah, so that from that time forward he bore the exalted name of Jehovah-Savior (Num. 13:16). Thus Oshea became Yehowshua, and this has been anglicized into Joshua. And it needs to be carefully noted that Oshea was given this name by Moses as a constant reminder and proclamation that it was Jehovah who was saving and delivering, even though He used a human agent to lead Israel over Jordan, conquer the land, and give portions to the tribes of Israel.

When the Old Testament was translated into Greek (The Septuagint Version)  several hundred years before Christ  a meaningful word had to be found to render Yehowshuwa, and the word used was Iesous.. This was a good choice, for when the New Testament was written the name Iesous is found on almost every page. Then when the English translations were made of the Greek, Iesous became Jesus. So, as already said, whether we say Yehowshuwa, Jehoshua, Joshua, Iesous, or Jesus, we are saying Jehovah-Savior. The change is only in the language, not in the meaning.”

The main thrust of this article is that the English “Jesus” is the same as the translated Hebrew “Jehovah-Savior”.*

“JEHOVAH” IS GOD’S NAME

God has one Name in the sense that it tells us Who He is, and that Name is “Jehovah”. Isaiah 42:8, “I am Jehovah, that is My Name…”.  (It is true that many do not agree that “Jehovah” is correct, and offer other alternatives.  In point of fact, however, no one can be certain what God’s name is because Old Testament Hebrew did not have vowels, so the vowels of the name were added centuries after the writing of the Old Testament). To continue, please note this verse begins, “I am Jehovah”.  This verse tells us much more than what God is called, which is the usual reason for a name. It is important to understand that “name” is sometimes used as a figure of speech metonymy of adjunct, which is defined in the Companion Bible as, “When something pertaining to the subject is put for the subject itself”. In this verse the word “Name” is used as that which pertains to Jehovah, Who is the subject. It is used as a figure of speech for Who God is. 

Figures of speech are used to enhance a truth. What truth is being enhanced by the use of the figure of speech in Is. 42:8? In my opinion, it is used to enhance the truth of Who God is. A definition of “Jehovah” might be helpful in making this point.  Dr. E.W. Bullinger gives the following definition of the word “Jehovah” in the Companion Bible: “Jehovah means the Eternal, the Immutable One, He Who Was and IS and IS TO COME”. So when we read “I am Jehovah, that is My Name” we are reading, I am “the Eternal, the Immutable One, He Who Was and IS and IS TO COME”, that is Who I am.

Exodus 6:3 is also helpful in establishing how “name” is used as a figure of speech to enhance the truth of Who God is. That verse reads, “I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac and to Jacob as God Almighty, but by My Name, Jehovah, I did not make Myself known to them”. In other words, God had appeared to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob but not as “the Eternal, Immutable One”, but as “God Almighty”. But when God appeared to Moses, He made Himself known as Who He is, His very essence, i.e. Eternal.

Thus far we have considered “name” in a figurative sense, i.e. the name tells us who a person is. But it is also used in God’s Word in a literal sense, i.e. in the sense of what one is called. In Is. 54:5 He is called “Jehovah-Sabaioth“. And in II Sam. 6:2 we read, “Whose name is called by the name of Jehovah of hosts“. In Is. 54:5 we read, “For thy Maker is thine Husband, Jehovah of hosts is His name.…….the Holy One of Israel, the Elohim of the whole world shall He be called“. And we have in Amos 5:27, “Whose name is Elohim of hosts”. These verses do not use “name” as a figure of speech, they use it quite literally. Note none say that God is……, they say He is “called” or “is His name”. When we read in Is. 42:8, “I am Jehovah”, we are reading of Who God is in His very being. In that sense then, God has only one name, i.e. “Jehovah”.

I have tried to show from Scripture that Christ was Jehovah in bodily form in Old Testament times. However, when we come to the New Testament, when Christ took on a human body of flesh and blood  He was the manifestation of Jehovah in human form. We will see that the titles that are ascribed to Jehovah in the Old Testament are also ascribed to Christ in the New Testament. In my opinion, this helps to prove that Christ, in fulfilling the titles of Jehovah, was the manifestation of Jehovah.*

TITLES ASCRIBED TO CHRIST IN THE NEW TESTAMENT AND TO JEHOVAH IN THE OLD TESTAMENT

SAVIOR

It is clear from the following New Testament verses that Jesus Christ is the Savior.

I John 4:14, “We have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Savior of the world”. Luke 2:11 “This day in the city of David, a Savior is born”.

The Bible makes it quite clear that Jesus Christ is the Savior of the world. What is not clear, especially in the King James Version, is that the title “Savior” is ascribed to Jehovah in the Old Testament. Some of the scriptures quoted below mention other titles besides “Savior” as well as His Name, “Jehovah”. A study of all the titles of Jehovah will show that all are ascribed to Jesus Christ in the New Testament.

Isaiah 43:3, “For I am Jehovah thy Elohim, the Holy One of Israel, thy Savior“.

Isaiah 49:26, “…. and all flesh shall know that I Jehovah am thy Savior and thy Redeemer, the Mighty One of Jacob.

Is. 60:16, “…and thou shalt know that I am Jehovah-Moshiek,( i.e. “Jehovah- Savior“, one of the ten Jehovah titles) and thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel.

Hosea 13:4, “Yet I am Jehovah thy Elohim….  there is no Savior beside Me”. Note that in Hosea 13:4 Jehovah says, “There is no Savior beside Me”. So Jehovah did not relinquish the office of savior by sending His Son. Jehovah became flesh in the Person of Jesus Christ.

REDEEMER

That Jesus Christ is the Redeemer is clear from Rev. 5:9, “…for Thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood …”.

Consider also Eph. 1:6-7, “..He hath made us accepted in the Beloved, in whom we have redemption through His blood, …”.

Heb. 9:12, “…. by His own blood He entered once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us”.

That Jehovah is the Redeemer is clear from the passages quoted below.

Job 19:25, “For I know that my Redeemer liveth, and that He shall stand at the latter day upon the earth”.  Note, Job says that he knows that his Redeemer lives, not, will live. Job knew that Jehovah/Christ was in bodily form. Note also that Job knew that his Redeemer would stand on the earth. That can be said only of Jesus Christ, Jehovah in the flesh.

Psalm 19:14, “Let the words of my mouth…be acceptable O Jehovah, my strength and my redeemer“.

Ps. 103-104, “Bless Jehovah, oh my soul……. Who  redeemeth my life from destruction”.

Is. 41:14, “Jehovah and my Redeemer”.

Is. 43:14, “…..I will help thee saith Jehovah, your Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel…”.

Is. 63:16, “…. Thou Jehovah art our Father, our Redeemer“. Note in this verse that Jehovah is the Redeemer, Who is Christ, He is also the Father. This seeming difficulty will be discussed below.*

THE MOST HIGH

We read in Ps. 78:35, “And they remembered that God was their rock, and the High God their redeemer”. According to Dr. E. W. Bullinger the Hebrew reads, “El Elyon =El most high”. We learn from this verse that the “Most High” is the redeemer. Who is the redeemer?

As discussed in the section above on redeemer,  that Jesus Christ is the Redeemer is clear from Rev. 5:9, “…for Thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood …”.

That Jehovah is the Redeemer is clear from the following  passage:

Psalm 19:14, “Let the words of my mouth…be acceptable O Jehovah, my strength and my redeemer“.

Ps. 103-104, “Bless Jehovah, oh my soul……. Who  redeemeth my life from destruction”.

Is. 41:14, “Jehovah and my Redeemer”.

My point is this: the Psalmist speaks of the “Most High” as the Redeemer.  The passages quoted above show that both Christ and Jehovah are said to be the Redeemer.  In order to avoid the conclusion that there are two Redeemers, we must conclude that Christ and Jehovah are One and the same.  Because the Redeemer is Christ/Jehovah and the Psalmist tells us that the Redeemer is the Most High, logic dictates that the Most High is Christ/Jehovah.

SHEPHERD

In His discourse recorded in John chapter ten, our Lord said, “I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd lays down His life for the sheep” (verse 10). And again, in verse 14, “I am the good shepherd, I know my sheep and my sheep know me”.

Hebrews 13:20, “May the God of peace, who through the blood of the eternal covenant, Who brought back from the dead our Lord Jesus, that great Shepherd of the sheep…”.

I Peter 5:20, “And when the Chief Shepherd appears, you will receive a crown of glory”.

The following scriptures from the Old Testament will show that Jehovah is the great Shepherd.

Psalm 23:1, “Jehovah is my shepherd, I shall not want…”.

Isaiah 40:11, “He (Jehovah Adonai, see verse 10) shall feed His flocks like a shepherd: He shall gather the lambs with His arm, and carry them in His bosom, and shall gently lead those that are with young”.

Ezekiel 34:12-15, “As a shepherd seeketh out his flock in the day that he is among his sheep that are scattered: so will I seek out My sheep and will deliver them out of all places where they have been scattered in the cloudy and dark day. ……I will feed them in a good pasture, and upon the high mountains of Israel shall their fold be: …. I will feed My flock and I will cause them to lie down saith Jehovah Adonai”.*

BRIDEGROOM, HUSBAND

In the New Testament we read of Christ, the Bridegroom/Husband in the following verses.

Matthew 9:15, “And Jesus said unto them, ‘Can the children of the bridechamber mourn, as long as the bridegroom is with them? But the days will come, when the bridegroom shall be taken from them, and then shall they fast”.

In John 3:29 we read of John the Baptist’s answer to those questioning him; “He that hath the bride is the bridegroom: but the friend of the bridegroom, which standeth and heareth him, rejoiceth greatly because of the bridegroom’s voice: this my joy therefore is fulfilled”.

Rev. 21:9, “And there came unto me one of the seven angels which had the seven vials …and talked with me saying, ‘Come hither, I will shew thee the bride, the Lamb’s wife”. (Please note that the terms “bride” and “wife” are not used in the same way as they are today. In Old Testament culture the espoused woman was the wife and once married was the bride).

In the Old Testament we have the following verses which speak of Jehovah as the Husband.

Isaiah 54:5-6, “For thy Maker is thine husband; Jehovah of hosts is His Name: and thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; the God of the whole earth shall He be called”  (note the use of many of the titles of Jehovah).

Jer. 31:31-32, “Behold, the days come, saith Jehovah that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house Judah: Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers…..which My covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith Jehovah”

Hosea 2:19-20, “And I will betroth thee unto Me forever:…..I will even betroth thee unto Me in faithfulness: and thou shalt know Jehovah“.*

CREATOR

Elohim is the creator of heaven and earth, as that is the title used in Gen. 1:1.But as we shall see in this section, Jehovah/Christ is the creator, using one of His many titles, i.e. “Elohim”.

Confirmation of the fact that Christ is the creator is found in the following verses in the New Testament.

John 1:10, “He (Christ, see verse 9) was in the world, and the world was made by Him, and the world knew Him not”.

Col. 1:16, “For by Him (Christ, see verses 13-15) were all things created, that are in heaven and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by Him, and for Him”.

In the Old Testament we find the following verses showing that Jehovah is the creator:

Isaiah 44:24, “Thus saith Jehovah, thy Redeemer, and He that formed thee from the womb, I am Jehovah that maketh all things: That stretcheth forth the heavens alone; That spreadeth abroad the earth by Myself”.

Is. 45:12, “I have made the earth, and created man upon it: I, even My hands, have stretched out the heavens, and all their host have I commanded”.

Zech. 12:1,”The burden of the word of Jehovah for Israel, saith Jehovah, Which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him.”*

HOLY ONE

We read in Acts 2:25-27 of yet another title of Christ that is used of Jehovah in the Old Testament. “For David speaketh concerning Him,……….neither wilt Thou suffer Thine Holy One to see corruption”.

Acts 3:13-14, “The God of Abraham and of Isaac and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, hath glorified His Son Jesus, Whom ye delivered up, and denied Him in the presence of Pilate, when he was determined to let Him go. But ye denied the Holy One and the just and desired a murderer to be granted unto you”.

The title “Holy One” is used of Jehovah in the following Old Testament scriptures:

Isaiah 43:14, “Thus saith Jehovah, your redeemer, the Holy One of Israel”.

Isaiah 54:5, “For thy Maker is thine husband; the Lord of hosts is His name; and thy Redeemer the Holy One of Israel…”. That this verse refers to Jehovah is clear from the fact that the other titles given in this verse are ascribed to Jehovah.*

EVERY KNEE SHALL BOW

We have seen that the titles ascribed to Jesus Christ in the New Testament are ascribed to Jehovah in the Old Testament. In my opinion, this shows that Christ is the manifestation of  Jehovah. There are other scriptures, besides those that mention His titles, which are applicable to Jehovah and to Christ, proving once again that Christ and Jehovah are one and the same.

We read in Isaiah 45:21-23, “…..Who hath told it from that time? Have not I Jehovah?…. I have sworn by Myself, the word is gone out of My mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, That unto Me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear”. 

In Romans 14:10-11 we read, “…we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ. For it is written…every knee shall bow to Me and every tongue, shall confess to God”.

And in Phil. 2:10-11, “That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. The phrase “to the glory of God the Father” will be discussed in  a section below.*

“THE FIRST AND THE LAST”

In Rev. 1:17-18 we read, “And when I saw Him I fell at His feet as dead. And He laid His right hand upon me, saying unto me, ‘Fear not; I am the first and the Last; I am He that liveth, and was dead; and behold, I am alive for evermore”. This is obviously Jesus Christ Who is speaking to John in this passage. As we shall in the Old Testament, the title “the First and the Last” is one of the titles of Jehovah.

Is. 44:6, “Thus saith Jehovah, the King of Israel, and His Redeemer the Lord of hosts;  ‘I am the first, and I am the last, and beside Me there is no God’”.*

THE ANGEL OF THE LORD

We read in Judges 13:17-18, “And Manoah said unto the Angel of the Lord,’What is Thy name, that when thy saying comes to pass we may do Thee honor?’ And the Angel of the Lord said unto him, ‘Why askest thou thus after My name, seeing it is secret?’” It is the Hebrew word translated “secret” that is so compelling. That Hebrew word is “pilee”. This Hebrew word is used only once, other than in Judges 13, that is in Ps.139:6, “such knowledge is too wonderful for me”. “Pilee” is from the same root as is the word “pehleh”. “Pehleh” is the word translated “Wonderful” in Isaiah 9:6. “For unto us a child is born, unto us a Son is given: and the government shall be upon His shoulder; and His name shall be called Wonderful.…”. Obviously, Is. 9:6 is referring to Christ. And this verse tells us that one of Christ’s Names shall be “Wonderful”. In other words, in answer to the question as to what is the Name of the One to Whom Menoah is speaking, the Angel of the Lord says that His Name is “Wonderful“. Christ’s Name will be “Wonderful” according to Is. 9:6. This is not accidental. I believe that the Angel of the Lord is telling all those who study God’s Word that He, the Angel of the Lord, is Christ, the Child that was to be born and the Son that was to be given. (Please see the paper on the Angel of the Lord for further proof that Christ is the angel of the Lord).*

“FATHER” And  “SON”

I have tried to show in this paper that Jesus Christ is Jehovah of the Old Testament. That He was in bodily form but when He was born to Mary He became flesh and blood. Let us consider the magnitude of His humiliation as we read in Phil. 2:5-8, “Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal to God: But made Himself of no reputation, and took upon Him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: and being found in fashion as man, He humbled Himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross”.

May I again clarify the point that Christ was in bodily form in the Old Testament, but in the New Testament, when He was born to Mary, He became flesh and blood, i.e. Man. So also, when our Lord ascended into heaven after His resurrection He ascended, not as a human being, i.e. not as flesh and blood, but in the bodily form of a man.

“Father”, “Son” and “Holy Spirit” are titles of Jehovah, and because Christ is the manifestation of Jehovah all titles are ascribed to Him, even the titles  “Father” and “Son” and “Holy Spirit”. Let us consider the scriptural evidence of that statement.

Isaiah 9:6, “For unto us a child is born, unto us a Son is given; and the government shall be upon His shoulder; and His name shall be called Wonderful, Counseller, The mighty God, the Everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace”. That this prophecy refers to Christ is evident from the other titles in this passage, especially “unto us a Son is given”.  We know that Christ is “the Prince of Peace”. If “Son” and “Prince of Peace” are titles of Christ, so too, logic dictates, must “Everlasting Father” be one of Christ’s titles.

Isaiah 63:16, “…..Thou O Jehovah art our Father, our Redeemer: Thy Name is from everlasting”. The reader will recall that “Redeemer” is one of the titles of Jehovah that is ascribed to Christ in the New Testament. Again, logic dictates that because the titles “Father” and “Redeemer” are used of one Person, and “Redeemer is used of Christ, so too is “Father” used of Christ.

Isaiah 64:8, “But now O Jehovah, Thou art our Father; we are the clay, and Thou art our Potter; and we all are the work of Thy hand”. Again, the reader will recall that Jehovah is the creator and that title is also ascribed to Christ in the New Testament.

It is clear from the scriptures quoted above that “Father” is one of the titles of Jehovah. The title “Father” does not, in any way imply that He is “more God” than the Son. It says only that the title is superior to the title “servant”, for example. Let us look at some of the important passages in John’s Gospel in terms of telling us Who Christ is, so that we might have a better understanding of the truth.

Before we begin, let me reiterate, it is absolutely crucial to keep in mind that God has only one Name, and that Name is “Jehovah”. All the others are titles. So when we come to the New Testament, we understand that when we read of Christ as “Savior”, as “Redeemer”, as “Good Shepherd”, etc., we are not reading of different Persons, we are reading of different titles applied to the same Person, Christ/Jehovah. So too, when we read the title “Son of Man”, and “Son of God”, it is still one Person, Christ/Jehovah. And when we read of the “Father”, we are not reading of a different God, we are reading of a different title of the same God, Jehovah.

Indeed, we read in John 10:30, “I and the Father are one”. When we understand that “Father” is a title, we can understand the true meaning of that statement. Along the same line of thought, please also consider John 12:45, “when he looks at Me, he sees the One who sent Me”.

I believe that all confusion will be erased as one keeps in mind that “Son” is a title and “Father” is a title; both titles are ascribed to the one true God, Jehovah. Because the New Testament presents Christ as the “Son”, He must have a “Father”, so the titles only seem to present two different Persons.

“HOLY SPIRIT”

As we consider Acts 5:3 and 9 along with II Cor. 3:14-18 we will see that, as is true of all the offices of Jehovah, Jesus Christ fulfills the office of Holy Spirit. Acts 5:3 reads, “Peter said to Ananias, why hath Satan filled thine heart to lie to the Holy Ghost… .” But Acts 5:9 records Peter’s comment to Sapphira, the wife of Ananias, and reads, “How is it that you have agreed together to tempt the Spirit of the Lord?” Note that Peter used the term “Holy Ghost” in his rebuke of Ananias but in verse 9, he used the term “Spirit of the Lord” in his rebuke to Sapphira of the same offence.

Does this passage in Acts 5 allow us to equate the term “Holy Ghost” (or “Spirit”) with the term “the Spirit of the Lord”? Let us examine that thought. Ananias committed the same offence as did his wife Sapphira, i.e. they both lied about what they received in selling a certain possession. (see verses 2 and 8). So both Ananias and Sapphira lied to the Holy Spirit. Because they both lied, they both tempted the Spirit of the Lord. That is to say, one did not lie and the other tempt, they both lied to the Holy Spirit, therefore they both tempted Him. Further, because one did not sin against a different Person than did the other, I believe we may conclude that the term “Holy Ghost” (or Spirit) is the same Person as the Spirit of the Lord. Now let us compare this with II Cor. 3:14-18.

II Cor. 3:14-18 reads, “But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ. But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart. Nevertheless, when it (the heart of Israel) shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away. Now the Lord is that Spirit (add the ellipsis “that taketh away the vail”) ; and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty. But ye all with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, are changed into the same image from glory to glory, even as by the Spirit of the Lord.”

Let us, for the sake of clarity, consider a few key phrases. We read in verse 14, “which vail is done away in Christ“. And in verse 17, “Now the Lord is that Spirit (add the ellipsis “that taketh away the vail”). One verse tells us that it is Christ that takes away the vail and another verse tells us it is the Lord’s Spirit that takes it away. There is, of course, no contradiction here. By combining the thought that the vail is done way in Christ, with the thought that it is the Lord’s Spirit that takes away the vail, we learn that we may think of the Lord’s Spirit, as Christ Himself. I believe that because the vail in question is not a literal vail (it is the vail that covers the heart or the spirit of Israel) That which takes away the vail is Spirit, i.e. the Lord’s Spirit.

Going on, let us consider verse 17, “and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty’. What is the “liberty’ spoken of in this verse? That question must, of course, be answered from the context. Because the context has to do with taking away the blindness of Israel in understanding the Old Testament, the liberty, in my opinion, is the correct understanding of the Old Testament that comes when Christ takes away the vail that was causing the blindness. My point is that the “liberty” comes as a result of the taking away of the vail. And since we are told that Christ has done away with the vail, and that the “Spirit of the Lord” gives the liberty, we may conclude that the Spirit of the Lord is Christ’s Spirit.

We are now ready to consider the suggestion that Christ fulfills the office of the Holy Spirit. We have learned from II Cor. 3:14-18 that the term “Spirit of the Lord” is Christ’s Spirit and that we may think of Christ’s Spirit as Christ. And we learned in Acts 5 that the term “Spirit of the Lord” is equated with the term “Holy Ghost” (or “Spirit”). That means that Christ’s Spirit is the Holy Spirit and that Christ’s Spirit may be thought of as Christ.  Therefore,  we may conclude that Jesus Christ fulfills the office of Holy Spirit.*

CONCLUSION

There is, I believe, no question that Jehovah is God. There is a question in the minds of some that Jesus Christ is God. I believe that much of the confusion comes in not recognizing that “Jehovah” is His Name, and the rest of what we read are titles. It is, unfortunately, quite understandable that there may be some confusion in that regard, as the King James Version does not give us His Name in the original language, but translates “Jehovah” to “Lord”. I have tried to show from the Bible that Jesus Christ is Jehovah in bodily form and is the manifestation of Jehovah in human form, i.e. flesh and blood. Once that is accepted there should be no question as to whether Christ is God.

Another point that has led many into confusion is the thinking that Christ did not exist until He was born to Mary. That assumption leads one to begin the story of Jesus Christ, i.e. Who He is, at the beginning of the New Testament. The New Testament begins with Christ’s humiliation when He took on the form of a servant. So, in one sense, it may be understandable to think of Him as less than God, but only when one begins at the middle of the story.

JEHOVAH IS GOD. JESUS CHRIST IS JEHOVAH. JESUS CHRIST IS GOD.

*The bold type in the quoted passages were added.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to respond please e-mail me at:  [email protected]

WHY IS “ELOHIM” PLURAL?

We read in Gen. 1:1, “In the beginning Elohim created the heaven and the earth”. “Elohim” is  plural for “El”. Many believe that the reason that “Elohim” is plural is that it refers to the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. As we consider Gen. 32:24-30 we will see that “Elohim” cannot refer to the Father.  That passage records Jacob’s physical struggle with “a Man”. And then in verse 30 we read, “…. I have seen Elohim face to face and my life is preserved”. If the title “Elohim” includes three Persons, including, of course, the Father, then we have a rather glaring contradiction in the Word of God as we read in John 6:46, “Not that any man hath seen the Father, save He Which is of God. He hath seen the Father”. Jacob saw Elohim. If “Elohim” implies the three Persons of the Trinity, then Jacob would have seen the Father. But no man has ever seen the Father, except for Christ. Therein, lies the contradiction in seeing three Persons implied in the plurality of “Elohim”.

Let us also consider the Holy Spirit. The Hebrew “ruach” is the word used in the title “Holy Spirit”. The definition of “ruach” as given in the Appendix No. 9 in the Companion Bible is excellent. “The meaning of the word is to be deduced only from its usage. The one root idea running through all the passages is invisible force. As this force may be exerted in varying forms, and may be manifested in divers ways, so various renderings are necessitated, corresponding thereto. Ruach, in whatever sense it is used always represents that which is invisible except by its manifestations.”

As mentioned above, Jacob saw Elohim “face to face”. Just as Jacob could not have seen the Father, so also Jacob could not have seen the Holy Spirit, Who is invisibl

Why then is “Elohim” plural?  in order to answer that question we must understand that God has one Name in the sense that it tells us Who He is,, and that Name is “Jehovah”. Isaiah 42:8, “I am Jehovah, that is My Name…”. Please note this verse begins, “I am Jehovah”. This verse tells us much more than what God is called, which is the usual reason for a name. It is important to understand that “name” is sometimes used as the figure of speech Metonymy of Adjunct, which is defined in the Companion Bible as, “When something pertaining to the subject is put for the subject itself”. In this verse the phrase “My Name” is used as that which pertains to Jehovah, Who is the subject. “Name” is used as a figure of speech for Who God is. 

Figures of speech are used to enhance a truth. What truth is being enhanced by the use of the figure of speech in Is. 42:8? In my opinion, it is used to enhance the truth of Who God is. A definition of “Jehovah” might be helpful in making this point. Dr. Bullinger gives the following definition of the word “Jehovah” in the Companion Bible: “Jehovah means the Eternal, the Immutable One, He Who Was and IS and IS TO COME”. So when we read “I am Jehovah, that is My Name” we are reading, I am “the Eternal, the Immutable One, He Who Was and IS and IS TO COME”, that is Who I am.

If “Elohim” is not God’s name what is it?  We know that God, whose name is “Jehovah”, is spirit and as such we can know nothing of Him unless He chooses to reveal Himself, and He has done that. He has revealed Himself through Jesus Christ Who is the manifestation of Jehovah (please see the paper on this web-site Jesus Christ Is Both Jehovah And The Manifestation Of Jehovah for the Scriptural evidence). But the point is that He has revealed Himself through His various offices. With each office comes a title. His Old Testament titles include, “Elohim”, “El”. “Eloah”. Tzoor”, “Jah”, “Elyon”, Shaddai”, “Adon” and all of the ten Jehovah titles, i.e., “Jehovah-Jireh”, “Jehovah-Ropheka”, Jehovah-Nissi”. “Jehovah-MeKaddishkem”, “Jehovah-Shalom”, “Jehovah-Zebaoth”, “Jehovah-Zidkenu”, “Jehovah-Shammah”, “Jehovah-Elyon”, and “Jehovah-Roi”.

I suggest that the reason “Elohim” is plural is to indicate the fact that creation was accomplished by God in several offices. The body of this paper will quote the passages that have to do with creation and will show that creation was accomplished by God in several of His offices.

 Who Created The Heavens And The Earth?

Gen. 1:1, “In the beginning Elohim created the heaven and the earth”.

Gen. 1:7, “And Elohim made the firmament….”.

Gen. 2:4, “These are THE GENERATIONS OF THE HEAVENS AND OF THE EARTH which they were created in the day that Jehovah Elohim made the earth and the heavens”.

Job 9:2 reads, “How shall man be just with El…?  The next 7 verses go on to say what El has done.  In verse 8 we read, “Which alone spreadeth out the heavens, and treadeth upon the waves of the seas”.

Job 38:1-6, Then Jehovah answered Job out of the whirlwind, and said………..Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth?…Who hath laid the measures thereof, if thou knowest? Or Who laid the corner stone thereof”.

Ps. 8:1, “O Jehovah our Adonim, How excellent is Thy name in all the earth!”  In verses 3-5 we read, “When I consider thy heavens, the work of Thy fingers…”

Ps. 33:6, “By the word of Jehovah were the heavens made”.

Ps. 89:11-12, “The heavens are Thine, the earth also is Thine;   As for the world and the fullness thereof, Thou hast founded them.  The north and the south Thou hast created them…”. To Whom does this passage refer?  That question is answered in verse 8, which reads, “O Jehovah Elohim of hosts, Who is a strong Jah  like unto Thee?”

Ps. 95:3-7, “For Jehovah is a great El, and a great King above all gods; in His hand are the deep places of the earth; the strength of the hills is His also, the sea is His, and He made it; and His hands formed the dry land. ..O come let us worship and bow down; let us kneel before Jehovah our maker.  For He is our Elohim…”.

Ps. 90:1-2, “Adonai, Thou hast been our dwelling place in all generations.  Before the mountains were brought forth, or ever Thou hadst formed the earth and the world, even from everlasting to everlasting, Thou art El”.

Ps. 102:24-25, “I said, ‘O my El, take me not away in the midst of my days’: Thy years are throughout all generations.  Of old hast Thou laid the foundation of the earth” and the heavens are the work of Thy hands”.

We read in Ps. 104:5, “Who laid the foundations of the earth, that it should not be removed for ever”.  The “Who” of this verse refer back to verse 1, “Bless Jehovah (according to the Companion Bible the Hebrew reads “Jehovah Himself”) O my soul. O Jehovah my Elohim”.

Ps. 121:2, “My help cometh from Jehovah Which made heaven and earth”.  Also Ps. 124:8, “Our help is in the name of Jehovah, Who made heaven and earth”, and 134:3, “Jehovah That made heaven and earth Bless thee out of Zion”.

We read in Ps. 136:1,  “O give thanks unto Jehovah; for He is good”.  The rest of the Psalm describes that goodness, but we will limit our study of this Psalm to verses 5-9, “To Him that by wisdom made the heavens…To Him that stretch out the earth above the waters….To Him that made great lights……The sun to rule by day…..the moon and stars to rule by night”

Ps. 146:5-6, “Happy is he that hath El of Jacob for his help, Whose hope is in Jehovah his Elohim, Which made heaven and earth and all that therein is”.

Is. 37:16, “O Lord of Hosts (Heb. Jehovah Sabaioth) Elohim of Israel…..Thou hast made heaven and earth”.

Is. 40:22, “It is He That sitteth upon the circle of the earth…..That stretcheth out the heavens as a curtain and spreadeth them out as a tent to dwell in”. To Whom does the pronoun “He” refer in this verse?  We read in verse 18, “To Whom then will ye liken El?’

Is. 40:25-28, “To Whom then will ye liken Me, or shall I be equal?  saith the Holy One……Hast thou not known? Hast thou not heard, that the everlasting Elohim, Jehovah, the Creator of the ends of the earth fainteth not……”..

Is. 42:5, “Thus saith El Jehovah, He That created the heavens, and stretched them out; He That spread forth the earth, and that which cometh out of it; He that giveth breath unto the people upon it, and spirit to them that walk therein”.

Is. 45:11-12, “Thus saith Jehovah, the Holy One of Israel, and his Maker, …..I have made the earth and created man upon it; I even My hands have stretched out the heavens, and all their host have I commanded”.

Is. 45:18, “Thus saith Jehovah, that created the heavens; Elohim Himself That formed the earth and made it; He hath established it, He created it not in vain, He formed it to be inhabited; I am Jehovah”.

Is. 48:12-13, “Hearken unto Me, O Jacob and Israel, My called, I am He: I am the first, I also am the last.  Mine hand also hath laid the foundation of the earth, and My right had hath spanned the heavens: which I call unto them, they stand up together”.

Is. 51:13, “And forgettest Jehovah thy Maker, That hath stretched forth the heavens, and laid the foundations of the earth….”.

Jer. 10:10-12, “But Jehovah is the true Elohim, He is the living Elohim and the everlasting King…..He hath made the earth by His power, He hath established the world by His wisdom, and hath stretched out the heavens by His discretion”.

Jer. 27:4-5, “…..Thus saith Jehovah of hosts, the Elohim of Israel…. I have made the earth, the man and the beast that are upon the ground, by My great power and by My outstretched arm, and I have given it unto whom it seemed meet unto Me”.

Jer. 32:17, “Ah Jehovah Adonai! Behold, Thou hast made the heaven and the earth by Thy great power and stretched out arm, and there is nothing too hard for Thee”.

Jer. 51:15, “He hath made the earth by His power, He hath established the world by His wisdom and hath stretched out the heaven by His understanding”. To Whom does the pronoun “He” refer?  That question is answered in the previous verse, i.e. verse 14 which reads, “Jehovah of Hosts hath sworn by Himself…”..

Zech. 12:1, “The burden of the word of Jehovah for Israel, saith Jehovah, ‘Which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him”.

Zech. 12:1, “The burden of the word of Jehovah for Israel, saith Jehovah, ‘Which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth…”

Who Created The Sun, The Moon And The Stars?

Gen. 1:16, “And Elohim made two great lights; the greater light to rule the day, and the lesser light to rule the night: He made the stars also”.

Ps. 8:1, “O Jehovah our Adonim, How excellent is Thy name in all the earth!”  In verses 3-5 we read, “When I consider thy heavens, the work of Thy fingers, The moon and the stars, which Thou hast ordained;….. what is man that Thou art mindful of him…..for Thou hast made him a little lower than the angels”.

Ps. 33:6, “By the word of Jehovah were the heavens made; and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth”.

We read in Ps. 136:1,  “O give thanks unto Jehovah; for He is good”.  The rest of the Psalm describes that goodness, but we will limit our study of this Psalm to verses 5-9, “To Him that by wisdom made the heavens…To Him that stretch out the earth above the waters….To Him that made great lights……The sun to rule by day…..the moon and stars to rule by night”.

Who Created Man?

Gen. 1:26, “And Elohim said, ‘Let Us make man in our image, after Our likeness…”.

Gen. 1:27, “So Elohim created man in His own image…”.

Gen. 5:1, “This is THE BOOK OF THE GENERATIONS OF ADAM.  In the day that Elohim created man, in the likeness of Elohim made He him”.

Gen. 6:6, “And it repented Jehovah that He had made man on the earth…”.

Gen. 6:7, “…..And Jehovah said I will destroy man whom I have created…”

Job 10:2, “I will say unto Eloah….”.  Then in verse 8 we read, “Thine hands (Eloah) hath made me and fashioned me round about….”.

Job 31:14-15, “What then shall I do when El riseth up? ……Did not He That made me in the womb make them, and did not One fashion us in the womb?”.

Ps. 8:1, “O Jehovah our Adonim, How excellent is Thy name in all the earth!”  In verse 5 we read, “what is man that Thou art mindful of him…..for Thou hast made him a little lower than the angels”.

Ps. 95:3-7, “For Jehovah is a great El, and a great King above all gods……… let us kneel beforeJehovah our maker.  For He is our Elohim…”.

Is. 43:7, “Even every one that is called by My name; for I have created him for My glory, I have formed him, yea I have made him”. To determine Who is the speaker in this verse we must go to verse 3, which reads, “I am Jehovah, thy Elohim, the Holy One of Israel, thy Saviour…”.

 Is. 44:2, “Thus saith Jehovah That made thee and formed thee from the womb….”.

Is. 45:11, “Thus saith Jehovah, the Holy One of Israel, and his Maker, …..I have made the earth and created man upon it”.

Is. 49:5, “And now saith Jehovah that formed Me from the womb….”.

Is. 51:13, “And forgettest Jehovah thy Maker…”.

Jer. 27:4-5, “…..Thus saith Jehovah of hosts, the Elohim of Israel…. I have made the earth, the man and the beast that are upon the ground, by My great power and by My outstretched arm, and I have given it unto whom it seemed meet unto Me”.

 Who Breathed Into Adam’s Nostrils”

Gen. 2:7, “And Jehovah Elohim  formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into the nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul”.

Job 33:4, “The Spirit of El hath made me, and the breath of THE ALMIGHT (Heb. Shaddai) hath given me life.”

Zech. 12:1, “The burden of the word of Jehovah for Israel, saith Jehovah, ‘Which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him”.

Who Created The Beasts Of The Field?

Gen. 1:25, “And Elohim made the beast of the earth….”.

Jer. 27:4-5, “…..Thus saith Jehovah of hosts, the Elohim of Israel…. I have made the earth, the man and the beast that are upon the ground, by My great power and by My outstretched arm, and I have given it unto whom it seemed meet unto Me”.

CONCLUSION

Where we read that Elohim has created, we also read that Jehovah, El, Eloah, Jah, Shaddai, Adonim, Adonia, Sabaioth and the Holy One have created. These are obviously not ten different Creators, they are titles of the One God, Whose name is Jehovah.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to respond please e-mail me at: [email protected]

AN INTRODUCTION TO DISPENSATIONAL TRUTH

SCRIPTURAL DEFINITIONS OF TERMS HAVING TO DO WITH DISPENSATIONAL TRUTHS

ARE WE ASKING THE WRONG QUESTION?

WHAT EXACTLY IS THE MYSTERY THAT HAD BEEN HID IN GOD?

WHEN DID THE CHURCH BEGIN?

THE STRUCTURE OF THE BIBLE: PAUL’S CHURCH EPISTLES

WHAT CONSTITUTES A CHANGE OF DISPENSATIONS?

IS THE PRESENT DISPENSATION UNIQUE?

A DIFFERENT APPROACH TO THE QUESTION OF HOW MANY DISPENSATIONS THERE ARE IN GOD’S ETERNAL PLANS 

WHICH MYSTERY HAD BEEN HID IN GOD?

IS THE PRESENT DISPENSATION CALLED “THE DISPENSATION OF THE GRACE OF GOD”?

WHICH EPISTLES WERE WRITTEN FOR THE CHURCH OF THE DISPENSATION OF THE MYSTERY?

IS THE DISPENSATIONAL BOUNDARY ACTS 28:28 OR 28:25?

THE ONE BODY OF EPHESIANS TWO IS NOT THE CHURCH WHICH IS HIS BODY

WHEN WILL THE CHURCH BE RESURRECTED?

IS THE CHURCH CALLED TO HEAVEN?

A STUDY OF THE NEW JERUSALEM  

THE CHURCH IN THE END TIMES

WHO WERE CHOSEN BEFORE THE OVERTHROW OF THE WORLD?

SOME THOUGHTS ON THE MID-ACTS POSITION

SOME THOUGHTS ON THE ACTS TWO POSITION

A STUDY OF CHRIST’S CHURCH AND THE CHURCH WHICH IS HIS BODY

DID PAUL PREACH CHRIST’S MILLENNIAL REIGN?

FAITH AND WORKS IN GOD’S PLAN OF SALVATION

WAS THERE A TRANSITION INTO THE PRESENT DISPENSATION?

A DISPENSATIONAL STUDY OF THE STONING OF STEPHEN

A STUDY OF THE JUDGMENT SEAT OF CHRIST

A STUDY OF THE MYSTERIES OF THE NEW TESTAMENT

SOME THOUGHTS ON ROMANS 11

ARE THERE TWO CALLINGS IN THE DISPENSATION OF THE MYSTERY?

IS THERE AN ELECTION WITHIN AN ELECTION?

THE WIFE AND THE BRIDE OF REVELATION

THE OUT-RESURRECTION AND THE PRIZE OF THE HIGH CALLING

THE DISPENSATIONAL PLACE OF JOHN’S GOSPEL

WAS THE NEW COVENANT IN EFFECT IN THE ACTS PERIOD?

WAS THE LAW OF MOSES ABOLISHED AT THE CROSS?

“LET NO MAN JUDGE YOU THEREFORE IN MEAT OR IN DRINK….” (COL. 2:16)

WILL ALL ISRAEL BE SAVED ?

THE GOSPEL OF THE CIRCUMCISION AND THE GOSPEL OF THE UNCIRCUMCISION

THE APPARENT CONTRADICTION IN REVELATION 21:1

FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS ABOUT ISRAEL’S LO-AMMI PERIOD

WAS ISRAEL LO-AMMI THROUGHOUT THE NEW TESTAMENT?: PART ONE

WAS ISRAEL LO-AMMI THROUGHOUT THE NEW TESTAMENT?: PART TWO “THE GLORY OF THE LORD DEPARTED”

JEWS AND GENTILES IN THE DISPENSATION OF THE MYSTERY

THREE QUESTIONS ABOUT THE EQUALITY OF JEWS AND GENTILES

SEEMING ERRORS IN GOD’S PERFECT WORD IF IT IS NOT RIGHTLY DIVIDED

SALVATION SENT TO THE GENTILES APART FROM ISRAEL

OUR WITNESS TO PRINCIPALITIES AND POWERS IN HEAVENLY PLACES

A DISPENSATIONAL APPROACH TO SPIRITUAL WARFARE (new as of June, 2018)

THE DISPENSATION OF THE FULNESS OF TIMES

ENDEAVOURING TO KEEP THE UNITY OF THE SPIRIT: A STUDY OF EPH. 4:3-6

DOES GOD WORK IN OUR LIVES TODAY?

Welcome

WELCOME ! I am so happy to have you visit this web-site and to be able to share my views with others who love the Lord Jesus Christ. It might be helpful for you to know that the papers offered at this site are written from the point of view that the Church which is His Body began at Acts 28. May I suggest to those of you who do not agree with that position that you first read the paper. “When Did The Church Begin? “

What I Believe:

• I believe that Jesus Christ is both Jehovah and Jehovah manifest in the flesh.
• I believe that Christ died and was raised from the dead, and is now in heaven.
• I believe that “whosoever believes in Him will have everlasting life”.
• I believe that the Bible is God breathed.

AN OVERVIEW OF THE END TIMES

A CHRONOLOGICAL LIST OF THE END TIME DAYS: THE DAY OF THE LORD, THE DAY OF CHRIST, ETC.

WHAT IS THE SIGN OF THE BEGINNING OF THE END TIMES?

THE CHURCH IN THE END TIMES

THE RAPTURE AT THE END OF THE TRIBULATION

THE NON-EVENTS OF 70 AD

THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN

WILL THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN BE ESTABLISHED BEFORE THE SECOND COMING OF CHRIST?

WILL ALL BELIEVERS BE CAUGHT UP IN THE CLOUDS?

WILL THERE BE UNBELIEVERS ON THE NEW EARTH?

THE TRIBULATION WILL NOT BE WORLD WIDE

A STUDY OF THE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN THE TRIBULATION AND THE DAY OF GOD’S WRATH

DANIEL’S 70 WEEKS

COMMAND TO BUILD JERUSALEM: DANIEL 9:25

WHO IS “MESSIAH THE PRINCE”?

WILL ISRAEL BE GOD’S PEOPLE FOR THE TRIBULATION?

WILL DAVID REIGN ON THE MILLENNIAL THRONE?

ANIMAL SACRIFICES IN THE MILLENNIUM (NEW AS OF FEB., 2018)

HAVE ANY OF THE PROPHECIES OF DANIEL ELEVEN BEEN FULFILLED?

IS JERUSALEM “MYSTERY BABYLON”?

NEBUCHADNEZZAR’S DREAM: THE GREEK ANTICHRIST

WHEN WILL THE TIMES OF THE GENTILES BE FULFILLED?

A STUDY OF THE SEQUENCE OF EVENTS IN REVELATION

A STUDY OF THE SYMBOLS IN REVELATION

IS THE DESTRUCTION OF THE TEMPLE IN 70 AD A FULFILLMENT OF PROPHECY?

“AFTER TWO DAYS HE WILL REVIVE US”

WILL CHRIST RETURN WITH SAINTS OR WITH ANGELS?

ELIJAH WILL “RESTORE ALL THINGS”

TO WHOM DOES II THESS. 2:6-9 REFER?

“THIS GENERATION SHALL NOT PASS TILL ALL THESE THINGS BE FULFILLED”

CONDITIONAL PROPHECY

PRETERISM

THE ANTICHRIST WILL NOT BE JEWISH

THE NUMBERED DAYS OF DANIEL 12

WHEN WILL THE MARRIAGE OF THE LAMB TAKE PLACE? 

JESUS CHRIST IS BOTH JEHOVAH AND THE MANIFESTATION OF JEHOVAH

A STUDY OF THE OLD TESTAMENT TITLES OF JESUS CHRIST  (new as of Oct. 2018)

CAN JESUS CHRIST BE BOTH MAN AND GOD?

A STUDY OF THE TITLES OF JEHOVAH

WHAT CAN WE LEARN FROM THE TITLE “LAMB OF GOD”?  (New as of March, 2018)

THE TRINITY: IS GOD THREE PERSONS IN ONE?

THE TRINITY PART TWO: ELOHIM

THE TRINITY PART THREE: THE SCRIPTURAL EVIDENCE THAT DISPROVES THE DOCTRINE

THE TRINITY PART FOUR: DOES JESUS CHRIST SIT NEXT TO GOD IN HEAVEN?

“SIT THOU AT MY RIGHT HAND”

A STUDY OF THE TERM “DIVINE COUNCIL” (New as of July, 2018)

JESUS CHRIST WAS NOT FORSAKEN ON THE CROSS

WHY IS “ELOHIM” PLURAL?

ONENESS THEOLOGY OR “MODULISM

FIRSTBORN: WAS CHRIST BORN BEFORE ANYONE ELSE?

A STUDY OF SPIRIT

DOES THE HOLY SPIRIT LIVE IN US?

THE COMFORTER

WHO IS THE ANGEL OF THE LORD?

A STUDY OF THE HEBREW WORD “ADONI”

IS GOD THE FATHER OF ALL MEN? (new as of Oct. 2018)

A third Old Testament verse which speaks of the Father is Is. 64:8, “And now O Jehovah, Thou art our Father; we are the clay, and we all are the work of Thy hand”. This verse tells us that man was created by the Father.  But we know from at least two New Testament verses that Christ is the Creator. John 1:10, “He (Christ, see verse 9) was in the world, and the world was made by Him, and the world knew Him not”. Col. 1:16, “For by Him (Christ, see verses 13-15) were all things created, that are in heaven and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by Him, and for Him”.

If we see the Father as one Person and Christ as another, we have a contradiction. There are no contradictions in the Word of God. Once we see that Christ is the fulfillment of all of Jehovah’s titles, including “Father” all is clear. That is to say, man was created by Jehovah in His offices of Father and in His office of Elohim (see Gen. 1:1).

The other papers to be found on this web-site on the doctrine of the Trinity are:

The Trinity: Is God Three Persons In One?

The Trinity: Part Two: “Elohim”

Does Jesus Christ Sit Next To God In Heaven?

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. I would love to hear your thoughts. Please E-mail me at: [email protected]

The view of most Christians today is that Christ was buried on Friday and raised on Sunday, that adds up to two nights and two days. But the sign of Jonah is that Christ will be buried for three nights and three days. And there are several verses that tell us that Christ was raised “the third day”. Does that mean full days, or does it mean part of three days? There is one verse that seems to tell us that Christ was raised “within three days but within three days is less than three full days.

We will study the following topics in our search for the truth in this matter:

THE HEBREW DAY

THE SIGN OF JONAH

THE DAY OF CHRIST’S DEATH AND THE DAY OF HIS RESURRECTION

CHRIST WAS BURIED BEFORE THE SABBATH

THE TIME OF CHRIST’S DEATH

A CONSIDERATION OF THE PHRASE “AFTER THREE DAYS”

A CONSIDERATION OF THE PHRASE “UNTIL THE THIRD DAY”

A CONSIDERATION OF THE PHRASE “THE THIRD DAY”

A CONSIDERATION OF SOME PROBLEM VERSES

THE HEBREW DAY

It is crucial that we understand that the Hebrew day begins and ends at sunset. How do we know that? Let us consider Gen. 1:4, “…..and the evening and the morning were the first day. And 1:8, “…..and the evening and the morning were the second day”. And 1:13, “…..and the evening and the morning were the third day”. See also verses 19, 23 and 31. Please note that in every case, the order is first the evening, and then the day.

In point of fact, even in the 21st century, the Hebrew day begins and ends at sunset. That is to say, Jews today count sunset as the beginning and the end of the day.

THE SIGN OF JONAH

The sign of Jonah is explained in Matt. 12:39-41. That passage reads, “But He answered and said unto them, ‘An evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonas: For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth’”.

Let us consider exactly what the sign of Jonah does tell us and what it does not tell us. Some have pointed to the fact that Jonah was not dead in the belly of the whale. But the sign, as Christ described it, was not that He would be dead, but that He would be “in the heart of the earth”. Of course, the fact that He would be in the heart of the earth certainly implies that He would be dead, but His death, per se, was not part of the sign. Therefore, the fact that Jonah was not dead in the whale of the belly does not detract from that event being a sign of Christ being “in the heart of the earth”.

Let us also consider the phrase “heart of the earth”. We know that Christ was buried in a sepulcher not in the earth. How shall we understand the phrase “heart of the earth”? Because the earth does not have a heart, we must understand this phrase to be a figure of speech. The note in the Companion Bible on that phrase reads, “heart of the earth = in the earth: i.e. the sepulcher, or tomb……… . It is the Fig. Pleonasm (a Hebraism)….the midst, or ‘in’. …… In any case it is not ‘the centre’, any more than the heart is in the centre of the body, instead of near the top……”.

In terms of our study, what is important is that the sign of Jonah is that Christ would be buried for three days and for three nights. I believe they are three whole days and three whole nights. This will be discussed below.

THE DAY OF CHRIST’S DEATH AND THE DAY OF HIS RESURRECTION

We read in Jn. 20:1, “the first day of the week cometh Mary Magdalene early, when it was yet dark unto the sepulcher, and seeth the stone taken away from the sepulcher”. The first day of the week is our Sunday. How do we know that? We know that from the fact that we read in Lev. 23:3, “Six days shall work be done: but the seventh day is the sabbath of rest…”. Jews today who keep the sabbath, keep it on Saturday. Because Jewish traditions have been kept without break from the time of Christ to this day, we may, in my opinion, conclude that Saturday was the sabbath day in the time of Christ as it is today. If Saturday is the weekly sabbath, the seventh day, (and I believe it is) that makes Sunday the first day of the week.

So Mary Magdalene went to the sepulcher early on Sunday morning while it was still dark, and she found it empty. The section below on the term “after three days” will prove from Scripture that Christ was indeed buried for three full days and three full nights. But Mary went to the tomb while it was still dark, which tells us that Christ was not there all of Saturday night. Therefore, because Christ was not in the tomb for all of Saturday night, Saturday night can not be counted as the third night.

I believe that Christ was buried at sunset Wednesday. If we count from Wednesday at sunset to Saturday at sunset we will have three whole days and three whole nights. So the first night of His burial was Wednesday sunset to Thursday sunrise. The first day of His burial was Thursday sunrise to Thursday sunset. The second night of His burial was Thursday sunset to Friday’s sunrise. The second day of His burial was Friday’s sunrise to Friday’s sunset. The third night of His burial was Friday’s sunset to Saturday’s sunrise. And the third day of His burial was Saturday’s sunrise to Saturday’s sunset. In short, Christ was raised some time after sunset on Saturday night.

CHRIST WAS BURIED BEFORE THE SABBATH

As stated above, most Christians believe that Christ was buried on Friday and raised on Sunday. But that is only two days and two nights and the sign of Jonah is that Christ would be buried three days and three nights. I believe the difficulty comes from a misunderstanding of Luke 23:52-54 which reads, “This man went unto Pilate, and begged the body of Jesus. And He took it down, and wrapped it in linen, and laid it in a sepulcher that was hewn in stone, wherein never man before was laid. And that day was the preparation, and the sabbath drew on”.

The thinking of most today is that this sabbath was the weekly sabbath which began at Friday sunset. But again, the sign of Jonah is that Christ would be buried three days and nights, and Friday to Sunday is only two. There are no contradictions in the Word of God so we must consider this passage further.

We know that Christ was killed on the day of Passover because Paul wrote in I Cor. 5:7 that Christ is our Passover. In other words, Christ was the antitype of the passover lamb that was sacrificed on passover and in order to fulfill the type, He was killed on passover. We read in Lev. 23:5-7, “In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the Lord’s passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the Lord: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread. In the first day ye shall have an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein”. Please note that the passover itself is not a sabbath. That is to say the law does not say that there shall no servile work be done on passover. We must not add to the Word of God something that is not there. Therefore, because we are not told that the passover was a sabbath, I believe that it is not a sabbath.

This passage tells us that the day after passover is the feast of unleavened bread, the first day of which they were not allowed to do any servile work, i.e. it was a sabbath. It was just before this sabbath, not the weekly sabbath, on which Christ was killed. This is the sabbath mentioned in Luke 23:54.

THE TIME OF CHRIST’S DEATH

We read in Mark 15:25, “And it was the third hour and they crucified Him”. Then in Matt. 27:46 we read, “and about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, ‘Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?’ that is to say, ‘My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken Me?’”. And in verse 50, “Jesus, when He had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost”.

We learn from these verses that Christ was hung on the cross at the third hour and died at the ninth hour. Now the question is, the third and the ninth hour from when? As mentioned above in the section on the Hebrew day, the day begins at sunset. If we reckon the third hour and the ninth hour from sunset that would make the time of Christ’s crucifixion from around midnight to 3:00 the next morning. But we read in Matt. 27:45, “Now from the sixth hour there was darkness over all the land unto the ninth hour”. If Christ hung on the cross from midnight to 3:00 in the morning, it would have been dark anyway, and that would make the statement of Matt. 27:45 meaningless.

I believe, therefore, that the time is reckoned from sunrise. That is to say, if sunrise is about 6:00 A.M then the third to ninth hours (the time Christ hung on the cross) would have been from 9:00 A.M. to 3:00 P. M., and that makes more sense because it would not normally have been dark at those hours.

Furthermore, we read in several other passages that even though the Hebrew day does begin at sunset, the time in some scriptures is reckoned from when the day, as opposed to night, is reckoned, i.e. from sunrise. For example, we read in Matt. 20 of the parable of the hired labourers. We read in verses 2-3, “For the kingdom of Heaven is like unto a man that is an householder, which went out early in the morning to hire labourers into his vineyard. And he went out about the third hour and saw others standing idle in the marketplace”. In this passage we have “the third hour” described as “early in the morning”. If the third hour is reckoned from sunrise, the third hour would be about 9:00 A. M.. This makes perfect sense.

Let us also consider Acts 2:14-15 which is another example of how some scriptures reckon the day, as opposed to night, from sunrise. “But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them, ‘Ye men of Judea, and all ye that dwell at Jerusalem, be this known unto you, and hearken to my words; for these are not drunken, as ye suppose, seeing it is but the third hour of the day‘”. Peter’s argument is that the third hour of the day is too early for any to be drunk. But the third hour of the day if reckoned from sunset, would be around 9:00 P. M., and that would make Peter’s argument void. Therefore, we must conclude that here too, the third hour of the day is reckoned from sunrise, not sunset.

This section would not be complete without a discussion of Jn. 19:14-1 which reads, “And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, ‘Behold your King!’. But they cried out, ‘Away with Him, away with Him, crucify Him’….”. This passage records the hours before Christ was actually hung on the cross, and it says it was the “sixth hour“. But we read in Mark 15 that Christ was crucified beginning with the third hour. There are, of course, no contradictions in the Word of God. Therefore, I suggest therefore that we consider the suggestion of Charles Welch which states that John records Gentile time, which begins at midnight.

We will consider three passages from John’s Gospel which explain things that any Jew at the time would have known. The explanations therefore are for the benefit of Gentiles. Those three passages are Jn. 4:9, 6:4 and 20:16.

Jn. 4:9, “Then saith the woman of Samaria unto Him, ‘How is it that Thou being a Jew, askest drink of me, which am a woman of Samaria? (for the Jews have no dealings with the Samaritans)“. Obviously, the Jews knew that they had no dealings with the Samaritans, and this explanation would therefore be for the benefit of Gentiles.

Jn. 6:4, “And the passover, a feast of the Jews was nigh”. Every Jew knew that passover was a ” feast of the Jews”. This explanation is also obviously for the benefit of Gentiles.

Jn. 20:16, “Jesus saith unto her, ‘Mary’. She turned herself, and saith unto Him, ‘Rabboni’; which is to say, ‘Master’”. Every Jew knew what “Rabonni” meant. Again, the explanation of the word is for the benefit of Gentiles.

So where Mark and Matthew reckon the hours of Christ’s crucifixion from sunrise, John gives the hour reckoned from midnight, according to the Gentile reckoning.

A STUDY OF THE PHRASE “AFTER THREE DAYS”

We read in Mark 8:31, “And He (Christ) began to teach them, that the Son of man must suffer many things, and be rejected of the elders, and of the chief priests, and scribes, and be killed, and after three days rise again”. This is the only verse that records our Lord telling anyone that He would be raised after three days. In order to understand the phrase “after three days”, it is imperative that we understand the Greek preposition “meta”, translated “after”. Let us look at a few verses that use “meta” the same way it is used in reference to the time of Christ’s resurrection, i.e. with the accusative. I believe it will help us determine if what is meant is three full days or part of  three days.

Mark 14:28, “but after that I am risen I will go before you into Galilee “. In this verse the “after” tells us that Christ will go into Galilee at the completion of the act of being raised. So too, in my opinion, “after three days” must mean  at completion of the three days.

Luke 5:27, “After these things He went forth”. Christ had just healed a man of palsy and was talking to the Pharisees about forgiveness of sins. Again, the “after” tells us that it was when Christ had completed what He was doing that He “went forth”.

Luke 12:4, “And I say unto you My friends, Be not afraid of them that kill the body, and after that have no more that they can do”. It is not until the body has been killed and the act completed that there is nothing more that can be done to it.

Jn. 2:11-12, “This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee……after this He went to Capernaum…”. Christ did not go to Capernaum until the miracles of that time and place had been completed.

Jn. 11:6-7, “When He had heard therefore that he was sick, He abode two days still in the same place where He was. Then after that saith He to His disciples, ‘Let us go into Judea again’”. Again, “after” has the sense of completion. In other words when the two days were completed He told His disciple that they should all go to Judea.

Rev. 11:9 and 11, “And they of the people….. shall see their (the two witnesses) dead bodies three days and an half, and shall not suffer their dead bodies to be put in graves”. Verse 11, “And after three days and an half the spirit of life from God entered into them and they stood upon their feet…..”. The bodies of the two witnesses will lay in the streets of Jerusalem for three and one half days. Therefore, when we read that they will be raised “after” three and one half days, we must conclude that it was at the completion of those three and one half days that their bodies were brought back to life.

After considering how the Holy Spirit uses “meta” with the accusative, we must conclude that “after three days” means at the completion of three full days.

A CONSIDERATION OF THE PHRASE “UNTIL THE THIRD DAY”

We read in Matthew 27:63-64: “…saying, Sir, we remember that that deceiver said while he was yet alive, ‘After three days I rise again’. Command therefore that the sepulcher be made sure until the third day, lest haply his disciples come and steal him away, and say unto the people, He is risen from the dead: and the last error will be worse than the first.”

The reason this passage is important in our study is that, in my opinion, it tells us that the term “after three days” is equal to the term “until the third day”.  Let us consider the passage from Matt. 27  with the question in mind, i.e. does the term “after three days” mean the same as “until the third day”?

The guards were concerned that Christ’s disciples would try to steal the body of Christ away from the tomb. But they knew that Christ prophesied that He would be raised “after three days” so they determined that in order to prevent that theft the sepulcher would be “made sure” until the third day” Obviously, they would make the sepulcher secure until the completion of the third day. In other words, the guards would make the sepulcher secure the entire time that Christ prophesied He would remain in the sepulcher. That means, of course, that the term “after three days” means exactly the same as the term “until the third day”. Because we have, in the section above, proved that “after three days” refers to the completion of the third day, and in this section we have proved that the phrase “after three days” means the exact same thing as “until the third day” we must conclude that both terms mean the completion of three days.

A CONSIDERATION OF THE PHRASE “THE THIRD DAY”

Does the phrase “the third day” also mean at the completion of the third day? Let us consider each passage in which Christ used the phrase “the third day” as it relates to His resurrection.

Matt. 16:21, “From that time forth began Jesus to shew unto His disciples, how that He must go unto Jerusalem, and suffer many things of the elders and chief priests and scribes and be killed, and be raised again the third day.”

Matt. 17:22-23, “…….Jesus said unto them, ‘The Son of man shall be betrayed into the hands of men: and they shall kill Him, and the third day He shall be raised again’…”.

Matt. 20:18-19, “Behold, we go up to Jerusalem; and the Son of man shall be betrayed unto the chief priests and unto the scribes, and they shall condemn Him to death, and shall deliver Him to the Gentiles to mock and to scourge, and to crucify Him: and the third day He shall rise again”.

Mark 9:31, “For He taught His disciples, and said unto them ‘The Son of man is delivered into the hands of men, and they shall kill Him; and after that He is killed, He shall rise the third day“.

Mark 10:33-34, “..Behold, we go up to Jerusalem; and the Son of man shall be delivered unto the chief priests, and unto the scribes; and they shall condemn Him to death, and shall deliver Him to the Gentiles: and they shall mock Him, and shall scourge Him, and shall spit upon Him, and shall kill Him: and the third day He shall rise again”.

Luke 9:22, “…The Son of man must suffer many things, and be rejected of the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be slain, and be raised the third day“.

Luke 18:32-33, “For He shall be delivered unto the Gentiles, and shall be mocked, and spitefully entreated, and spitted on: and they shall scourge Him, and put Him to death: and the third day He shall rise again”.

Luke 24:7, “The Son of man must be delivered into the hands of sinful men, and be crucified, and the third day rise again”.

Luke 24:46, “And said unto them, ‘Thus it is written, and thus it behooved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day”.

There are two passages where the term “the third day” is used by others of Christ’s resurrection.

Acts 10:39-40, “…Whom they slayed and hanged on a tree: Him God raised up the third day, and shewed Him openly”.

I Cor. 15:3-4, “…..Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the scriptures”.

While it is true the phrase “the third day” may be interpreted to mean sometime in or during the third day, i.e. not three full days, we cannot understand it that way in reference to how long Christ was buried. The reasons we cannot interpret it that way is because: 1) The prophecy of Jonah, which our Lord quoted, tells us that Christ would be in the grave three days and three nights, i.e. three full days. 2) as proved in the section on the phrase, “after three days” it can mean only one thing, i.e. at the completion of three full days. 3) as proved in the section on the phrase “until the third day” that phrase refers to the exact same length of time as does the phrase “after three days”, i.e. after three days were completed.

Therefore we must conclude that Christ was buried for three whole days and three whole nights.

SOME PROBLEM VERSES

JOHN 2:18-21 “IN THREE DAYS”

We read in Jn. 2:18-22, “Then answered the Jews and said unto Him, ‘What sign shewest Thou unto us, seeing that Thou doest these things?’ Jesus answered and said unto them, ‘Destroy this Temple, and in three days I will raise it up.’ Then said the Jews, ‘forty and six years was this Temple in building, and wilt Thou rear it up in three days?’ But He spake of the Temple of His body. When therefore He was risen from the dead, His disciples remembered that He had said this unto them; and they believed the scripture, and the word which Jesus had said”.

Before we seek to interpret this passage we must first understand what it was that our Lord said to His audience. He told them that He would raise up the “Temple” in three days. We can tell by the response of the Pharisees that they understood Christ to be speaking of the literal Temple. If we were told that something would be built in three days, I believe we would understand that it would be built by the end of three days. Let us consider two other passages that speak of something done in a particular period of time.

I Cor. 10:8, reads, “Neither let us commit fornication, as some of them committed, and fell in one day three and twenty thousand”. The note in the Companion Bible gives Numbers. 25:1-9 as the reference to this tragedy. That passage tells us that these died by a plague. Surely, we must understand that they had all died of the plague by the end/completion of  the day.

And we read in Rev. 18:10, “….Alas, alas, that great city Babylon, that mighty city! for in one hour is thy judgment come”. Again, I think we would naturally understand that by the end/completion of one hour Babylon was destroyed.

So the Pharisees understood Christ to say that He would build the temple by the completion of three days. We know that Christ was speaking of “the Temple of His body”, but that does not change the meaning of the phrase “in three days”. If we understood the phrase “in three days” to mean “by the end/completion of three days” in reference to the literal Temple, we cannot change the meaning of the phrase when we discover that it was actually in reference to the resurrection of Christ’s body.

MATTHEW 27:40

In Matt. 27:40 we read the statement of those that reviled Christ while He hung on the cross saying, “Thou That destroyest the Temple, and buildest it in three days, save Thyself, if Thou be the Son of God come down from the cross”. To begin with, Christ did not say that He would destroy the Temple, but that is not really germane to this present discussion. What is germane however, is that even though Christ was speaking metaphorically of His own body, it does not change the fact that He said that the Temple will be raised, and as discussed above, it is understood that it would be raised by the completion of three days.

Mark 15:29 records the same event and, of course, must be understood the same way.

MATTHEW 26:61

Matt. 26:61 records the testimony at Christ’s trial of two false witnesses that said, “This fellow said, ‘I am able to destroy the Temple of God, and to build it in three days’”. The Greek preposition translated “in” in this verse is not “en” as it is in every other verse we have considered thus far in the term “in three days”. This verse uses the preposition “dia” and the Companion Bible suggests that it could read “within”. In other words, these men were exaggerating what they falsely accused Christ as having said. As we have seen above, Christ said the Temple would be built by the end of three days. But these witnesses took our Lord’s statement one step further and reported, falsely, that Christ said He would build the Temple within three days.

Because this is a false statement, we should not consider it as true. Therefore, this passage does not change the fact that Christ Himself said that He would be raised “after three days”, as we have seen, i.e. three full days.

Mark 14:58 records the same event and of course, the same thing can be said of that passage.

LUKE 24:21

Luke 24:21 is part of the passage that describes the risen Christ’s conversation with two of His apostles as they traveled to Emmaus. In verse 21 the two said to our Lord (not knowing that it was He), “But we trusted that it had been He Which should have redeemed Israel: and beside all this, to day is the third day since these things were done”.

On what day did this conversation take place? The context will answer that question. We read in Luke 24:1-12 of the women’s discovery that Christ was no longer in the sepulcher and of their telling Peter and others of this discovery. This, we know from verse 1, was on “the first day of the week”, i.e. Sunday. Then in verse 13 we read, “And behold two of them went that same day to a village called Emmaus….”. So this conversation took place on Sunday.

But Christ was crucified on Wednesday. So we have Thursday, Friday, Saturday and then Sunday would be the fourth day, not the third. Again, there are no contradictions in the Word of God so I suggest the following explanation from the internet:

Relying on the KJV, Strong’s Concordance identifies the word “is” in the phrase “to day is the third day” to have the root word αγω which is identified as follows: “A primary verb; properly to lead; by implication to bring, drive, (reflexively) go, pass (time), or (figuratively) induce:–be, bring (forth), carry (let) go, keep, lead away, be open.” It should be noted from this that the meaning closest to a time value for the root word for αγει in this list of descriptive terms is to “pass”. The “pass” here does not imply something in the past, but something that is passing or that has just passed.  

The meaning closest to the time frame aspect of the word αγει, then, would not be that this is the third day since these things happened, but that three days have passed since these things happened.

This is significant in that it tells us when the counting of the three days should begin and end. If ………. “three days have passed since all these things were done” and this is the first day of the week as stated in Luke 24:1, then yesterday (the seventh day of the week, the weekly Sabbath) was the third day in the sequence, Friday was the second day in the sequence, and Thursday was the first day in the sequence. This latter understanding is supported by the definition of σημερον in Luke 24:21 to mean either current or just passed.

 This is in keeping with what Scriptures teach in regard to how long Christ was in the tomb, i.e. from sunset on Wednesday to sunset on Saturday.

MARK 16:9

Mark 16:9 reads in the KJV reads, “Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of the week, He appeared first to Mary…”. Note that the comma after the phrase “first day of the week” gives the impression that Jesus was raised on the first day of the week, i.e. Sunday. But I believe it should read, “Now when Jesus was risen,(comma) early the first day of the week He appeared first to Mary…”. In other words, this verse says that after Jesus had been raised, He appeared early on Sunday to Mary.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to respond please e-mail me at: [email protected]

INTRODUCTION

In order to discuss the question posed in the title of this paper we must understand 1) The Hebrew culture of the New and Old Testament times in regard to marriage 2) Who is the Lamb, 3) who is the bride

1) In the present day western culture when a man marries a woman that woman becomes his wife. So she becomes his wife after the marriage ceremony. But in the Hebrew culture of Old and New Testament times, the woman was called the man’s “wife” when they were engaged, and she became his bride at the end of  the marriage ceremony. The man is called “husband” before and after the marriage ceremony and the engaged parties are spoken of as being married, even though they are only engaged. That is why we read, for example in Matt. 1:19  that Joseph is referred to as Mary’s “husband”, even though they had not yet married.

On the other hand, we read in Luke 5:13 that Elizabeth, the mother of John the Baptist, is referred to as a wife. So it seems that the Greek word “gunee” is used of both a married wife and a betrothed woman, and we must determine by the context which is meant.

Also, when two parties are engaged, but do not want to go through with the marriage ceremony, the man may divorce his “wife”.

As the reader will see as we continue in this study, there was a marriage feast before the wife became the bride. This feast, according to E. W. Bullinger, was separated in time by as much as a week. It will become clear as we continue in this study that the Greek word “gamos” is used of a marriage one time, but is usually used of the marriage feast. The English word “wedding’ is used in somewhat the same way as is “gamos”.  So in modern terms,  when a  person is preparing for a wedding, those preparations are usually for the wedding ceremony, or the wedding feast or the feast and ceremony as one event.

2) The Lamb is, of course, Jesus Christ, the Lamb of God. The reader will note that in the Old Testament it is Jehovah Who is the One to be married, but in the New Testament, it is Christ. As the paper on this web-site proves, Jesus Christ is Jehovah, and “Lamb of God” is one of the offices of Jehovah which is fulfilled, of course, by Jesus Christ.

3) Who is the bride? A few Old Testament verses should suffice in answering that question. Consider for example, Jer. 3:14 which reads, “Turn O backsliding children, saith the Lord; for I am married (as will be shown, this is in reference to the engagement) unto you: and I will take you one of a city, and two of a family, and I will bring you to Zion“. It is Israel that God will bring to Zion. It is Israel to whom the Lord is married (engaged). Therefore, it is Israel that will be the bride.

Consider also Isaiah 54:5-6, “For your Maker is your husband– the Lord of hosts is His name- …..The Lord will call you back as if you were a wife deserted and distressed in spirit- a wife who married (engaged) young, only to be rejected,’ says your God”.  Verse 3 gives us a clue as to whom this passage is addressed. That verse reads, “…….thy seed shall inherit the Gentiles….”. Obviously, the contrast is between the Gentiles (should read “nations”) and Israel. So Israel will inherit the nations. It is Israel to whom this passage is spoken and it is Israel that was the wife and will be the bride.

Let us also consider Hosea 2:15b-18, “……and she shall sing there as in the days of her youth and as in the day when she came out of the land of Egypt. And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord (Heb. “Jehovah”), that thou shalt call Me Ishi, and shalt call Me no more Baali…..and in that day will I make a covenant for them with the beasts of the field, and with the fowls of heaven, and with the creeping things of the ground: and I will break the bow and the sword and the battle out of the earth, and will make them to lie down safely”. Verse 15 refers to the “day she came out of Egypt”. It was, of course, Israel that came out of Egypt and it is Israel that will call Jehovah “Ishi”, i.e. “my Husband”.

But some believe that the church is the bride of Christ and point to Eph. 5:25-32, “Husbands love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave Himself for it……so ought men to love their wives as their own bodies. He that loveth his wife loveth himself. For no man ever yet hated his own flesh; but nourisheth and cherisheth it, even as the Lord the church: for we are members of His body, of His flesh, and of His bones. for this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and the two shall be one flesh. This is a great mystery; but I speak concerning Christ and the church”.

Does this passage say that the church is the bride of Christ? I believe that if we consider Paul’s point in this passage we will have our answer. The point is that husbands should love their wives as their own bodies. The relationship of the church to Christ is used as an example of what the relationship is between husband and wife. That is to say, the church is called the “body of Christ”. So the church is one with Christ just as the husband is one with his wife.

In short, the mystery spoken of in this chapter is not that the church is the bride of Christ, it is that the relationship of the church to Christ is the same as the relationship of the husband to his wife, i.e. they are one body.

WHEN IS THE MARRIAGE OF THE LAMB? 

When will the marriage of the Lamb take place? The Lamb is, of course, Jesus Christ and the parable of the wedding banquet recorded in Matt. 22 will answer the question as to when His marriage will take place.

We read in Matt, 22:1-9, “And Jesus answered and spake unto them again by parables, and said, ‘The kingdom of Heaven is like unto a certain king, which made a marriage for his son, and sent forth his servants to call them that were bidden to the wedding: and they would not come. ……. But when the king heard thereof, he was wroth: and he sent forth his armies, and destroyed those murderers, and burned up their city. Then saith he to his servants, ‘The wedding is ready, but they which were bidden were not worthy. Go ye therefore into the highways and as many as ye shall find bid to the marriage.”.

I realize that most interpret this parable to say that God represented by the king in this parable, sent His armies to destroy Jerusalem, and that was accomplished at 70 AD by the Roman army. But we read in Ezek. 5:9, “And I will do in thee that which I have not done, and whereunto I will not do any more the like.…..”. This verse tells us that after the destruction by the Babylonians led by Nebuchadnezzar, God will not destroy Jerusalem again. The paper on the parables of Christ will prove from Scripture that the destruction spoken of in this parable is an end time destruction and that the marriage banquet will be an end time event. 

We must bear in mind that, as clearly stated, the parable “is like unto the kingdom of Heaven” in some way. As the paper on the kingdom of Heaven will prove from Scripture, the phrase refers to Christ’s millennial reign over Israel. So the parable describes something having to do with Christ’s millennial reign.  Therefore, the marriage spoken of in this parable will begin with the second coming of Christ when He will establish His kingdom on earth.

The Wedding Feast

We read in Rev. 19:7, “For the marriage (Gr. “Gamos”) of the Lamb is come and His wife hath made herself ready”. How are we to understand the term “wife” in this verse? That is to say, does it mean a married wife as in the case of Elizabeth, the mother of John the Baptist,  or a betrothed “wife” as in the case of Mary?  I believe we must understand it as first century Jews would have understood it? Bearing in mind that first century Jews would have known that Israel was the betrothed “wife”of God at least through the Old Testament, I believe we may conclude that first century Jews would have understood this verse as referring to God’s betrothed.

We read in Rev. 21:9, “And there came unto me one of the seven angels……..saying, ‘ Come hither, I will shew thee the bride, the Lamb’s wife’”.   What John was shown by this angel is described in verse 10, “And he carried me away in the spirit to a great and high mountain, and shewed me that great city the holy Jerusalem, descending out of heaven from God.”.  So this verse tells us that Israel will be the bride of Christ  as the new Jerusalem, which represents Israel as the bride,  descends out of of heaven to the new earth.  This is , of course after the millennium.

In other words, Rev. 19:7 seems to tell us that the marriage is at the second coming of Christ, i.e. before the millennium, and Rev. 21:9-10  tells us that it is after the millennium that Israel is the bride. There are no contradictions in the Word of God. I believe a comparison of Rev. 19:7 with 19:9 will help solve this seeming contradiction. Rev. 19:9 reads, “…..Blessed are they which are called to the marriage supper of the Lamb”. Rev. 19:7 and 9 are parallel verses, i.e. they explain each other. By putting them together we learn that verse 7 refers to the marriage supper, or feast. That is to say, it is the marriage feast of the Lamb that is come. If we are to fully understand this concept of the marriage feast we must consider each of the occurrences of the Greek word “gamos” translated “marriage” in Rev. 19:7 and 9.

Matt. 22:2-4, “The kingdom of Heaven is like a certain king, which made a marriage (Gr. “gamos”) for his son. 3) And sent forth his servants to call them that were bidden to the wedding (Gr. “gamos”) and they would not come. 4) Again he sent forth other servants saying, ‘Tell them which are bidden, ‘Behold, I have prepared my dinner: and my oxen and my fatlings are killed, and all things are ready: come unto the marriage (Gr. “gamos”) “.

Matt. 22:8-12, “Then saith he to his servants, the wedding (Gr. “gamos”) is ready, but they which were bidden were not worthy. 9) go ye therefore into the highways and as many as ye shall find, bid to the marriage‘ (Gr. “gamos”). 10) So those servants went out into the highways and gathered together all, as many as they found, both bad and good: and the wedding (Gr. “gamos”) was furnished with guests. 11) And when the king came in to see the guests, he saw there a man which had not on a wedding (Gr. “gamos”) garment: 12) And he saith unto him, ‘Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding (Gr. “gamos”) garment?”

It is clear from verse 4 (“I have prepared my dinner“) that it is the marriage feast to which many were invited and the entire parable concerns the marriage feast.

Matt. 25:10, “And while they (the virgins of the parable of the ten virgins) went to buy, the bridegroom came; and they that were ready went in with him to the marriage (Gr. “gamos”)….”. Given that this is a parable about being ready for the second coming of Christ, and that Rev. 19:9 tells us that it is the wedding supper that will be prepared, I believe that here too “gamos” refers to the marriage feast.

Luke 12:36-37, “And ye yourselves like unto men that wait for their lord, when he will return from the wedding (Gr. “gamos”) that when he cometh and knocketh, they may open unto him immediately. 37) Blessed are those servants, whom the lord when he cometh shall find watching: verily I say unto you, that he shall gird himself, and make them to sit down to meat, and will comfort and serve them”. Given that we are told that they will “sit down to meat” I believe we may conclude that in this passage “gamos” is the marriage feast.

Luke 14:8, “When thou art bidden of any man to a wedding (Gr. “gamos”), sit not down in the highest room…….”. Verse 10 gives us our clue that here too “gamos” is used of the wedding feast. That verse reads, “….then shalt thou have worship in the presence of them that sit at meat with thee”.

John 2:1-2, “and in the third day there was a marriage (Gr. “gamos”) in Cana of Galilee; and the mother of Jesus was there: 2) And both Jesus was called and His disciples, to the marriage (Gr. “gamos”). 3) And when they wanted wine, the mother of Jesus saith unto Him, ‘They have no wine’”. Again the clue as to the meaning of “gamos” is found in the immediate context. The entire record of this sign that Jesus performed, is in the context of a marriage feast.

Heb. 13:4, “Marriage (Gr. “gamos”) is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled…..”. In this verse I believe the word “gamos” is used of the institution of marriage.

I believe a consideration of the word “supper” in Rev. 19:9 is in order. The Greek word translated “supper” in Rev. 19:9 is “dipnon”.  I Cor. 11:20-21 will be helpful. That passage reads, “When you come together therefore into one place, this is not to eat the Lord’s supper (“dipnon”). For in eating every one taketh before other his own supper (“dipnon”); and one is hungry and another is drunken”. In my opinion, “dipnon” refers to the actual meal, while “gamos” refers to the feast as an event which includes the dipnon, i.e. the supper. Consider also Luke 14:17, “….When thou makest a dinner or a supper (“dipnon”)….”.

Before we come to any conclusions about “gamos” let us consider the only passage  in the Bible that speaks of Israel as the bride, i.e. the “bride” as opposed to the” wife”.  We read in Rev. 21:9-10 “And there came unto me one of the seven angels……..saying, ‘ Come hither, I will shew thee the bride, the Lamb’s wife’”.  And he carried me away in the spirit to a great and high mountain, and shewed me that great city the holy Jerusalem, descending out of heaven from God.”.

We are now ready to consider the two seemingly contradictory verses of Revelation 19 and 21. Again, we read in Rev. 19:7,”For the marriage (Gr. “gamos”) of the Lamb is come and His wife hath made herself ready”. But we read in Rev. 21:9-10, “And there came unto me one of the seven angels……..saying, ‘ Come hither, I will shew thee the bride, the Lamb’s wife’”.  And he carried me away in the spirit to a great and high mountain, and shewed me that great city the holy Jerusalem, descending out of heaven from God.” I believe that all is clear once we see that the marriage feast and the marriage are one event.

There is admittedly a temptation after considering the occurrences of “gamos” to think of the marriage feast as a separate event than the marriage. But I do not believe that to be the case for two reasons. 1) I cannot find, either in the Old or in the New Testament, any mention of a marriage ceremony. That leads me to believe that the actual marriage is part of the marriage feast. 2) “Gamos” is used of both the marriage feast and marriage as an institution. Therefore I believe that the marriage feast and the marriage itself is one event.

Because Israel is not referred to as “bride” until after the millennium we must conclude that the marriage itself comes at the end, as opposed to the beginning, of the marriage feast.

In short, the marriage of the Lamb begins with the marriage feast at the second coming of Christ, and Israel becomes His bride after the millennium. Can we say that the marriage feast will last the 1,000 years of the millennial reign of Christ? Perhaps so.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to respond please e-mail me at:[email protected]