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January 9, 2023/ Religion

A STUDY OF THE SEQUENCE OF EVENTS IN REVELATION – Right Word Truth

maximios /

INTRODUCTION  

As is true of many things, a correct understanding of the terms used in the book of Revelation is of paramount importance if we are to understand that difficult book. For example, there is much confusion in regard to the day of the Lord and the Lord’s day. Many believe that they are the same. I believe that the Greek phrase in Rev. 1:10 translated “Lord’s Day” includes the day of the Lord as well as the tribulation and the second coming of Christ and the new heavens and new earth. In other words, the day of the Lord is a separate event from the tribulation, and the Lord’s day includes both.

I must admit that a large part of the confusion is due to a misunderstanding of a cross-reference in the Companion Bible on Revelation 1:10. That cross-reference  is on the phrase “Lord’s Day”. Many interpret the comment on this phrase to mean that the Greek phrase translated “Lord’s Day” in Rev. 1:10 was the same as the Greek in other verses of the New Testament that are translated “day of the Lord”. In actuality the Greek is not exactly the same. The Greek phrase in Revelation 1:10 is slightly different and is correctly translated “the Lord’s day”. Let us search for the Scriptural definition of the phrase, “Lord’s day”.

There are those who believe that the phrase “Lord’s day” means Sunday. In fact, I believe that most Christians hold to that view. Does it refer to Sunday or for that matter does it refer to any day of the week?  Let us search the Scriptures.

1) Sunday is always referred to in the New Testament as “the first day of the week”.  Saturday is always referred to in the New Testament as “the Sabbath”.

2) We read in Rev. 1:10 that “John was in the Spirit“.  What does that mean?  The same phrase is also found in Rev. 4:2, 17:3 and 21:10.  These verses will help us to understand the phrase “in the Spirit“.  Rev. 4:2 reads, “At once I was in the Spirit and there before me I saw a throne in heaven”.  It is clear from this verse and the context (which explains the breaking of the seals) that when John was “in the Spirit” the result was that he saw a vision of a future event.  Rev. 17:3 reads, “Then the angel carried me away in the Spirit into a desert.  There I saw a woman sitting on a scarlet beast….”.  It is clear also from this verse and its context that when John was “in the Spirit”, the result was that he saw a vision of a future event.  Rev. 21:10 reads, “And he carried me away in the Spirit and showed me the holy city, Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God”.  Again, it is clear that when John was “in the Spirit” the result was that he saw a vision of a future event.  Logic demands that the same phrase in Rev.1:10 also means that when John was “in the Spirit” the result was that he saw a vision of a future event.  In 1:10 the visions he saw were of future events that include the great tribulation, the second coming of Christ,  the day of the Lord, the millennium and the new earth and new heaven.

3) Given the monumental events recorded in Revelation, it makes so much better sense to accept the “Lord’s day” of 1:10 as referring to future events rather than to a day of the week.

I am suggesting that the phrase in Rev. 1:10 “Lord’s day” does not mean a day of the week, nor does it have the same narrow meaning as “the day of the Lord”.  And, since John also records visions of the millennium and the New Heaven and New Earth, we should include those visions as well in the phrase, “the Lord’s day”.

COSMIC DISTURBANCES

I believe that the tribulation and the day of the Lord are two separate events. A comparison of two passages will show that this is the case. These passages are Matt. 24:29-30 and Joel 2:30-31.

Matthew 24:21 reads, “For then there will be great distress unequaled from the beginning of the world until now – and never to be equaled again”. The “distress” mentioned in this verse, as the context will show, is the tribulation. Then our Lord goes on in verses 22 to 28 to tell His disciples what to do to escape the horrors of these times. Then in verses 29-30 we read, “Immediately after the distress of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from the sky, and the heavenly bodies will be shaken. At that time the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and all the nations of the earth will mourn. They will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of the sky, with power and great glory”. The sequence of events in this passage is: the tribulation then the cosmic disturbances.

Let us compare Matthew 24:29-30 with Joel 2:30-31, “I will show wonders in the heavens and on the earth, blood and fire and billows of smoke. The sun will be turned to darkness and the moon to blood before the coming of the great and dreadful day of the Lord”. The sequence of events in this passage is: the cosmic disturbances then the day of the Lord. So, in Matthew 24 the cosmic disturbances are after the tribulation and in Joel 2 the cosmic disturbances are before the day of the Lord. The cosmic disturbances mentioned in both these passages can not occur more than once. Therefore, the order of events must be: tribulation – cosmic disturbances – day of the Lord.

  THE TRIBULATION

Now that we have seen that the tribulation is not the same event as the day of the Lord we can, I believe, begin to have a better understanding of both the tribulation and the day of the Lord, and especially of the book of Revelation. I’m quite sure that most Bible believing Christians would agree that Revelation is one Book in the Bible that is not at all easy to understand. I am certainly not going to attempt to “explain” Revelation in this paper. However, I believe that there is a very important concept to keep in mind when we study this book that will help us to understand the sequence of events as described in Revelation. That concept involves the idea of finding phrases in other parts of the Bible that we know refer to a particular event and then looking for those same phrases in Revelation. This thought will become more clear as we study passages in the Old and New Testaments that relate to the events as recorded in Revelation.

Before we consider this concept let us first consider the problem. The problem, as I see it, is that Revelation, in large part, does not seem to be written in a sequence of events that makes sense. Let me site a few examples. In Rev. 6:12-13 we read, “…The sun turned black, ….the moon turned blood red, and the stars in the sky fell to earth”. But we read two chapters later in 8:12, “..a third of the sun was struck, a third of the moon and a third of the stars, so that a third of them turned dark”. First the sun and moon are turned black and the stars fall from the sky then later a third of the sun and moon are turned dark. This defies logic. I suggest therefore, that we not expect the book of Revelation to be written  in chronological order. This suggestion clears up the problems mentioned above concerning the sun and moon and stars and sky.

As mentioned earlier, the best way of making sense of the sequence of events as they are recorded in Revelation is to find key phrases from other portions of the Word in which it is clear what particular event is being spoken of, and then match those phrases with where they occur in Revelation. We will do just that with key phrases that have to do with the tribulation and also with key phrases having to with the day of the Lord.

There are several key phrases that have to do with the tribulation and by finding them and, so to speak, connecting the dots of those phrases, we will have a clearer understanding of scriptures having to do with this topic.

We read in Daniel 9:27, “He will confirm a covenant with many for one seven, but in the middle of that seven he will put an end to sacrifice and offering. And one who causes desolation will place abominations on a wing of the temple until the end that is decreed is poured out on him”. Most Bible believing Christians agree that the “seven” in this verse refers to a seven year period i.e. the 70th week of Daniel’s 70 weeks.  And that the “middle of that seven” is after 3 ½ years. We also know that this is the same 3 ½ years that our Lord was speaking of in Matthew 24 from the fact that both passages refer to the abomination of desolation“.

The phrase “abomination of desolation” also takes us to Daniel 11:31-32, “His armed forces will rise up to desecrate the temple fortress and will abolish the daily sacrifice. Then they will set up the abomination that causes desolation. With flattery he will corrupt those who have violated the covenant, but the people who know their God will firmly resist him”. We read of this same person in verses 36-37 we are told that, “He will exalt and magnify himself above every god and will say unheard of things against the God of gods”.

Let us also consider Dan. 11:30, “…….he (i.e. the “contemptible person” of verse 21, and the one who will “abolish the daily sacrifice“, verse 31 [the antichrist]) will return and show favor to those who forsake the holy covenant”.

By connecting these key phrases with similar key phrases in Rev. 13:11-17 we find more information and still other key phrases about our topic. Note, for example, verse 14, “……He ordered them to set up an image in honor of the beast who was wounded…”. We learn a bit more from these verses, note verse 15,”…..it (i.e. the image of the beast) could speak and cause all who refused to worship the image to be killed”. We learn also that everyone was ordered to receive a mark “on his right hand or on his forehead, so that no one could buy or sell unless he had the mark….”. In this same context we read in Rev. 14:1, “Then I looked and there before me was the Lamb, standing on the Mount Zion, and with Him 144,000 who had his name and his Father’s name written of on his forehead”. This takes us back to Rev. 7:4, “Then I heard the number of those who were sealed: 144,000 from all the tribes of Israel”.

There is another phrase that occurs several times in the context of the tribulation and it is found first in Rev. 6:9-11. Verse 9 tells us John saw, “the souls of those who had been slain because of the word of God and the testimony they had…”. And in verse 11 we read that “each of them were given a white robe“. These are the martyrs that came out of the tribulation. How do we know that? We are told in Rev. 7 13-14, where John is asked, “These in white robes – Who are they, and where did they come from? I answered, Sir, you know. And he said ‘These are they who have come out of the great tribulation;…..”.

That the tribulation is the main topic of what John saw in the spirit is clear when we consider a phrase that is repeated in each of the letters of chapters two and three. That phrase is, “To him who overcomes….”. Let us study this phrase to discover who these “overcomers” are.

In the letter to Ephesus the reward to the overcomers was, “I will give thee right to eat from the tree of life”. The tree of life is found in the New Earth (Rev. 22:2). We read in Rev. 21:7 that “He who overcomes will inherit all this…” i.e. the new Jerusalem. Verse 8 however, contrasts those who do not inherit “all this”, “….-their place will be in the fiery lake of burning sulpher. This is the second death“. We read in Rev. 20:14 that the lake of fire is the second death. And in 20:4-6 we learn that the second death would have no power over those who did not worship the beast but that the rest (i.e. those who did worship the beast) would be cast into the lake of fire. The fact that the second death is not something to be feared by those who did not worship the beast and that the beast is clearly the beast of the tribulation, shows that the overcomers are those who remained true to the One true God during the tribulation. The tree of life then, is rewarded to those who came out of the tribulation without worshipping the beast.

The letter to Smyrna promises, “He who overcomes will not be hurt at all by the second death”. (See note above on the letter to Ephesus).

The letter to Pergamum promises, hidden manna, a white stone and new name to the overcomers of the tribulation.

In the letter to Thyatira the overcomers are promised “I will give authority over the nations”

In the letter to Sardis we read, “He who overcomes will, like them be dressed in white…”. We know that those dressed in white are those “who have come out of the great tribulation, see Rev. 7:13-14.

In the letter to Philadelphia we read that the overcomers will have written on them “the name of the city of My God, the new Jerusalem”. He will also have a new name.

In the letter to Laodicea the overcomers are once again promised to rule with Christ. “I will give thee right to sit with Me on My throne”.

I believe that since all seven letters concern the overcomers of the tribulation, we can expect that a good portion of Revelation will be about the tribulation.

It would be helpful to list a few of the key phrases that will help us to determine what passages speak of the tribulation. They are: 1) 3 ½ years, 2) abomination of desolation, 3) say unheard of things against the God of gods, 4) 144,000, 5) white robes, 6) great tribulation and 7) overcomers. Now we are ready to study Revelation and see what we can learn about the great tribulation.

We have seen in the section above on the cosmic disturbances that the tribulation comes before the second coming, and the second coming includes the rapture. I Thess. 4:15-17 tells us that “the dead in Christ will rise first. After that , we who are still alive and are left will be caught up with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air.” We are told when these events will take place in verse 16, “For the Lord Himself will come down from heaven with a loud command…”. So, the rapture occurs at the coming of Christ in the clouds which happens after the tribulation. The obvious conclusion is that believers will be left on earth during the tribulation.  That is to say, believers will once again be Jews and Gentiles grafted into the Jewish nation as was the case in the Acts period. (Please see the paper on this web-site The End Of The Church for the Scriptural evidence for the fact that the church cannot exist during the tribulation.)

Let us examine the concept of believers having to go through the tribulation. To begin, let us look again at Matt. 24. Our Lord warns His disciples that when they see the abomination of desolation, which which will be set up the second half of the 70th seven that they should flee. If the rapture were to take place before the tribulation, there would have been no need to “flee”, and no need, therefore, for our Lord to tell them when to flee.

Another passage that impacts on the concept of believers being on earth during the tribulation is found in Rev. 12:4-6 where we read of the woman who gave birth to the male child who will rule the nations with an iron scepter. We read in verse 6, “The woman fled into the desert to a place prepared for her by God, where she might be taken care of for 1,260 days” (3 ½ years). Again in verse 12 of the same chapter we read that the dragon pursued the woman, “The woman was given the two wings of a great eagle, so that she might fly to the place prepared for her in the desert, where she would be taken care of for a time, times and half a time (3 ½ years) out of the serpents reach.” John does not say where this place prepared by God is, but I firmly believe that believers who are alive during the tribulation period will know where to go. If the rapture were to take place before the tribulation there would have been no need for a place of safety and no need therefore, for God to have prepared a place of safety.

I believe that the reason so many believe that the rapture will occur before the tribulation is that they confuse the tribulation with the day of wrath. That is to say, Scripture is clear that believers will not be subject to God’s wrath on the day of wrath. The paper on that subject proves that the tribulation is not the same as the day of wrath.

We will continue our study of the tribulation as described by John in Revelation by looking at each chapter, looking for key words to help us to determine which chapters are about the tribulation.

A comparison of Rev. 6:1-12 with Matt. 24 will show that verses 1-12 of Revelation 6 describe the tribulation.

In verse 12b of Rev. 6 we read of the cosmic disturbances of Matt. 24:29 and Acts 2: 19-20, which issue in the day of the Lord. “The sun turned black like sackcloth made of goat hair, the whole moon turned blood red and the stars fell to the earth…”.

In Rev. 6:17 we read, “For the great day of wrath has come, and who can stand?” The “great day of wrath” is the day of the Lord, which is proved by the fact that both phrases are used of that time immediately following the cosmic signs.

As much as one might expect chapter 7 to continue describing the great day of wrath, i.e. the day of the Lord, it does not. How do we know that? From our key words! Chapter 7 tells about the 144,000 (verse 4). It tells of those who are in the white robes (verse 13) who had come out of the great tribulation (verse14). Also, the key words of chapter seven are those we know to be key words describing the tribulation, not the day of the Lord.

Does chapter 8 continue with a description of the tribulation or does it describe the day of wrath? The cosmic disturbances mentioned in 8:6-12 tell us of a third of the sun etc. . As mentioned above however, at the opening of the sixth seal, the sun turned black and the moon turned to blood. Therefore we must conclude that when a third of the sun and a third of the moon was struck (8:12) it happened before the “sun turned black and the moon turned to blood” i.e. before the sixth seal, and before the day of God’s wrath, it happened during the tribulation.

Chapter 9:4 tells us that the great army of locusts were told “not to harm the grass of the earth etc., but only those who did not have the seal of God on their foreheads”. Those who are God’s people, i.e. who had the seal of God on their foreheads, were raptured at His coming which is before the day of the Lord. If this army of locusts were active during the day of the Lord, the protective command not to harm God’s people would have been totally unnecessary, as they would have already been raptured. Therefore chapter 9 explains the events of the tribulation, not of the day of the Lord.

We need to be careful not to confuse the army of locusts in Joel 2 with the army of locusts in Rev. 9. A comparison of the “locusts” of chapter 9 with the “locusts of Joel 2 will show these armies to be two different armies. Note in Joel 2:11 “The Lord thunders at the head of His army” Note also Joel 2:25 the Lord speaks of the locusts as “My great army”. In Rev. 9:11 however we read of these locusts that “They had a king over them the angel of the Abyss, whose name in Hebrew is Abaddon (ie. Destroyer). The locusts of Revelation 9 seem to be a copy (one of Satan’s tribulation counterfeits) of the locusts of Joel 2.

The context of Joel 2:3-11 will show that this army of Locusts is connected to the day of the Lord. Note for example verse 1, “Let all who live in the land tremble, for the day of the Lord is coming”. Note also verses 10 and 11, “Before them (i.e. the Lord’s army of locusts) the earth shakes, the sky trembles, the sun and moon are darkened, and the stars no longer shine…..The day of the lord is great; it is dreadful. Who can endure it?”, We must conclude therefore, that the army of locusts described Rev, chapter 9 is the army of Satan which will march in the tribulation. The army of locusts in Joel chapter two is God’s army which will march in the day of the Lord. So the army in Revelation appears during the time of the tribulation, while the army in Joel 2 appears in the day of the Lord.

Rev. chapter 11:1-14 concerns the tribulation, note verse 2, “But exclude the outer court; do not measure it, because it has been given to the Gentiles. They will trample the holy city for 42 months”. Note the comparison to Daniel 9:26, “The people of a ruler who will come will destroy the city and the sanctuary.”

Rev. 11:15-18 records a scene in heaven in which the 7th trumpet is sounded which heralds in the coming of God’s kingdom. But we see that in chapter 12 there are several key words which point us to the tribulation. Note verse 6, where God promises to take care of the woman (Israel) for 1,260 days, i.e. 3 ½ years. So again, we do not have the chronological sequence that we might expect. That is to say, after the scene in heaven of the 24 elders praising Christ for His upcoming rule on earth, chapter 12 describes a vision of John’s that takes place on earth during the tribulation.

Chapter 13 describes the beast i.e. the antichrist and the false prophet (see 19:20) who were, of course active during the tribulation.

Chapter 14 mentions the 144,000 which, again is one of our key words of the tribulation.

In 15:7 we see the wrath of God being prepared. Chapters 16 through 18 is a description of the day of wrath. Note for example 16:15, “Behold, I come like a thief!” The tribulation is never spoken of in terms of coming like a thief.

Chapter 19 concerns the second coming of Christ. We know from Acts 2 that the cosmic disturbances to appear in the day of the Lord are “before” the day of the Lord. In summary then, first the tribulation, then the cosmic disturbances then the day of the Lord begins. Revelation 19 tells us of the coming of Christ with the “armies of heaven” (Rev. 19:14) after the 7 last plagues which complete God’s wrath i.e. the day of the Lord..

Chapter 20 tells of the millennial rule and the judgment of those who went through the tribulation and failed to remain faithful to God.

Chapters 21 and 22 describe the New Heaven and the New Earth.

THE DAY OF THE LORD 

Just as there were key words pertaining to the tribulation which helped us to determine which passages referred to that event, so too  there are key words that pertain to the day of the Lord that will help us to determine which verses, especially in Revelation, refer to that event.

The first passage in the Old Testament that speaks of the day of the Lord is found in Isaiah 2. Verse 12 reads, “For the day of the Lord of hosts shall be upon everyone that is proud and lofty, and upon everyone that is lifted up, and he shall be brought low“. We read of the “proud and lofty” and those who will be humbled in that day several times in this passage, note verses 9,11,12 and 17.

Another key phrase in this passage that is repeated several times has to do with hiding in the rocks. Note verses, 10, “Go into the rocks, hide in the ground from the dread of the Lord and the splendor of His majesty”. See also verses 19 and 21.

“When He rises to shake the earth” is another key phrase used of the day of the Lord in this passage in Isaiah. See verses 19 and 21.

Another important passage that speaks of the day of the Lord is found in Joel 2. We find a few key phrases in Joel 2 that will help us to determine which passages in Revelation refer to the day of the Lord. One is found in verse 1, “Blow the trumpet in Zion”.  The second is found in verse 10 where we read that “Before them (i.e. the army of locusts) the earth shakes, the sky trembles, the sun and moon are darkened, and the stars no longer shine”. The reader will recall that we read of the same cosmic disturbances in Matt. 24, which tells us that these cosmic disturbances occur after the tribulation and therefore just before the day of the Lord.

Verses 2-9 go on to tell of an army (described in verse 25 as an army of locusts) that will be “large and mighty” “such as never was of old nor ever will be in ages to come”. As noted above, this army must not be confused with the army of locusts in Rev. 9.

Amos 5:18-20 tells of the day of the Lord as a day of darkness, not light. This is also a key phrase in helping us to determine what passages refer to the day of the Lord

Zeph. 1:7-13 also speaks of the day of the Lord. “Be silent before the Sovereign Lord, for the day of the Lord is near” (verse 7). Note verse 11, “Wail, you who live in the market district; all your merchants will be wiped out, all who trade with silver will be ruined”. Also verse 13, “Their wealth will be plundered, their houses demolished… .”.

Zeph. 1:14-18 is another important passage which helps us to understand the characteristics of the day of the Lord. “The great day of the Lord is near- …..the shouting of the warrior is there” (Verse 14). “That day will be a day of wrath, …..a day of darkness and gloom, a day of clouds and blackness” (verse 15). “A day of trumpet and battle cry” (verse 16). “…..In the fire of His jealousy the whole world will be consumed, for He will make a sudden end of all who live in the earth” .

Let us list the key phrases pertaining to the day of the Lord, so that when we come to Revelation we will be better able to understand which passages apply to the tribulation and which to the day of the Lord. For passages about the day of the Lord we should look for these key phrases:

1) the proud and lofty will be humbled,

2) men will flee to caverns and hide in the rocks,

3) when He rises to shake the earth,

4) sun and moon will be darkened and the stars will not give their light,

5) shout of the warrior,

6) a day of trumpet and battle cry,

7) a sudden end and merchants wiped out.

All of these phrases appear in passages in which the day of the Lord is mentioned specifically, so we know that these phrases have to do with the day of the Lord. When we come to the book of Revelation, it is not always clear which passages refer to the tribulation and which to the day of the Lord. But by looking for one or more of the key phrases pertaining to one or the other event we will be able to determine which passages apply to which event.

Let us now turn to Revelation and seek the phrases which apply to the day of the Lord.

We have already discussed chapters 2-3 above and have shown that they refer to the tribulation because of the key phrase in each letter of those chapters, “To those who overcome”

It is not until Chapter 6 verses 12-17 that we find any key words pertaining to the day of the Lord. Note verses 12-13, “…..The moon turned blood red and the stars fell from the skies”.

As mentioned above, chapters 7-14 describe events connected with the tribulation.

In chapter 15 we read of the day of the Lord, verse 1 reads, “…. Because with them (i.e. the seven last plagues) God’s wrath is complete“. Also verse 7, “…seven golden bowls filled with the wrath of God”.

Chapter 16 also has a key phrase that pertains to the day of the Lord, verse 14, “they (i.e. spirits of demons) go out to the whole world to gather them for the battle on the great day of God Almighty”.

Chapters 17-18 discuss the fall of Babylon and the victory over the beast, i.e. the antichrist. We find a few key phrases such as in 18: 15, “the merchants who sold these things and gained their wealth from her will stand off, terrified at her torment: Another key passage is 18:17, “In one hour such great wealth has been brought to ruin”. 

THE SECOND COMING

One of the very few references to the actual event of the second coming in the Old Testament is found in Zechariah 14:4-5, “On that day His feet will stand on the Mount of Olives…. . Then the Lord my God will come and all the holy ones with him”. Also a comparison of Rev. 1:7 with Zech. 12:10 will show a veiled reference to His second coming in Zechariah and a more complete picture in Revelation. Zech. 12:10 reads, “They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and mourn for him as one mourns for a firstborn son”. Rev. 1:7 reads, “Look, He is coming with the clouds  and every eye will see him, even those who pierced him.” These phrases take us to Matt. 24:30-31, “At that time the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and all the nations of the earth will mourn. They will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of the sky with power and great glory. And He will send His angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of the heavens to the other”.

The verses quoted above take us to I Thess. 4:16-17, “For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air…”. We know that the Lord appears in the sky after the tribulation and before the day of the Lord, so we know from this passage in I Thess. 4:16-17 that the rapture and the resurrection of believers will occur after the tribulation and before the day of the Lord.

THE QUESTION

When I began to study this post tribulation – pre-wrath rapture view, the question that puzzled me the most was, if the rapture takes place with the coming of the Lord in the clouds (which it does) and then after that there is the day of the Lord, where are those who will be raptured during the day of the Lord and how long will they be there?

THE ANSWER

When we look at the chapters in Revelation that deal with the day of the Lord we will find one phrase which occurs several times that helps answer the question under consideration. We see it first in Rev. 18:10, “…. In one hour your doom has come!”. Note also verse 17, “In one hour such great wealth has been brought to ruin!”. Also verse 19, “In one hour she has been brought to ruin”.

Comparing Rev. 18:21 with the verses quoted above, we see that it is not only possible, but stated that the fall of Babylon will take one hour. Verse 21 reads, “Then a mighty angel picked up a boulder the size of a large millstone and threw it into the sea and said, ‘With such violence the great city of Babylon will be thrown down” Zeph. 1:18 tells us also, “For He will make a sudden end of all who live in the earth”. It is true that God’s time is not necessarily our time, but I believe that “a sudden end” means just that, and can not, nor should not, be interpreted as anything but sudden.

But we must keep in mind that the day of the Lord is not only the destruction of Babylon, but also the day of wrath against unbelievers. Let us examine the “seven last plagues” which complete God’s wrath. (15:1). Chapter 16:2 tells of, “ugly and painful sores broke out on the people who had the mark of the beast and worshipped the beast”. In 16:3 we read that the sea will turn to blood. In 16:4 the rivers and springs were turned to blood. In 18:8 the sun was given power to scorch people with fire. In verse 10 we read that the kingdom of the beast “was plunged into darkness. Men gnawed their tongues in agony…”. In verse 12 we read that the river Euphrates was dried up. In verses 17-21 we read of the seventh angel and his bowl being poured out. We read of the worst earthquake the world had ever seen, the collapse of great cities and huge hail stones etc..

So then, what is the answer to the question of where will those raptured be during the day of the Lord and how long will they be there? I believe that they will be with the Lord in the clouds waiting for the day of His wrath to be completed, at which time they will return to earth with Him. How long will they remain until the day of wrath is complete? Babylon (the source of all evil and idol worship) will fall in one hour, the day of wrath will not be much longer than that.

If one considers the great war between God and Satan that has existed from the time of Satan’s fall through the tempting of Eve in the Garden of Eden, through the temporary defeat of God in the death of Christ on the cross (he will bruise his heel [Gen. 3:15]) and the whole tribulation period when Satan “pulls out all the stops”, so to speak, to get God’s people to worship him, then one gets a sense of what the whole Revelation is about. It is about Satan’s desire to be worshipped as God. The tribulation describes the steps he takes to accomplish that end. The day of the Lord describes God’s total destruction of that plan and all those who sided with that plan. Babylon represents the seat of Satan’s power and if the destruction of that city occurs in “one hour” then perhaps the seven last plagues will not take precedence over the main event, i.e. the destruction of the seat of power of evil personified.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. I would love to hear your thoughts. Please E-mail me at: [email protected]

September 28, 2022/ Religion

ARE MEN IN AUTHORITY OVER WOMEN? – Right Word Truth

maximios /

To be sure the question posed in the title of this paper is a controversial one. But it is an important one, and I will address it from a purely Scriptural point of view. I believe that the Word of God teaches that husbands are in authority over their wives, but I do not believe that the Bible teaches that men, as a gender, are in authority over women as a gender. In other words, if a woman is unmarried no man is in authority over her. The only One in authority over her as a woman is the Lord Himself.

The argument that women are subject to men is based on a few scriptures in the New Testament that seem to teach that women are subject to men. But I would like to start this little study in the Old Testament, namely, Gen. 3:16, “Unto the woman He said, ‘I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee‘ “.

It is important to note that Eve is to be ruled over by her husband. If we take this thought down through the generations that follow, we must see that women are to be ruled over by their husbands. This says nothing about all men ruling over all women. It is simply saying that the husband is the head of his wife (which is repeated in the New Testament).

Let us consider Deborah. Deborah was a judge over Israel who “settled disputes” (Judges 4:5). I believe we may assume that at least some of these disputes involved men. Therefore, Deborah was in authority over the men who came to her for her judgments.

It was Deborah who told Barak to lead Israel in war (Judges 4:14). In this case too, Deborah had the authority over the man, Barak when she told him to lead in war.

Next let us consider Jael. She murdered the man Sisera (Judges 4:21) in her tent as he slept. Her husband didn’t tell her to do that, she did it on her own. She did it because Sisera was an enemy of Israel. Furthermore, her act was praised, as we read in Judges 5:24, that Jael was “Most blessed of women”. If men were in authority over women, Jael had no right to kill Sisera. But she not only did kill him, she was praised for doing so. So neither Deborah or Jael were subject to all men.

Now let us consider the New Testament verses that seem to teach that all men are in authority over all women. We read in I Cor. 14:34-35, “Let your women keep silence in the churches; for it is a sin to permit them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home….”.

It is of the utmost importance to note that the Greek words translated “woman” and “men” are also translated “wives” and “husbands” respectively. In order to determine which the Holy Spirit had in mind, we must consider the context and/or parallel verses.

There are two clues in this passage which tell us that it is not women in general that are to be “under obedience”, it is wives who are to be under obedience. Those two clues are: 1) they should ask their husbands. Only wives have husbands, and 2) the phrase “saith the law“. I do not find a law that says that women must be under obedience to men. Dr. Bullinger’s cross reference in the Companion Bible is to Gen. 3:16, which says that Eve was to be subject to her husband. All women come under the curse of Gen. 3:16, but the curse is not that women shall be ruled by all men, it is that wives will be ruled by their own husbands.

In my opinion, the clues point to the subject of this passage as wives, not women. It is wives who must be in obedience to their husbands.

We read in I Cor. 11:3, “But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is the man…”. The same Greek words are used as were used in 14:34-35. Here again we must determine the correct translation by the context and/or parallel verses. The Companion Bible gives a few parallel verses, among them Eph. 5:23, “For the husband is the head of the wife.….”. That would indicate that it is the wife that is the subject of I Cor. 11, not women in general.

But what about I Cor. 11:9 which reads, “Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man”. This is an obvious reference to Gen. 2:18, “And the Lord God said, ‘It is not good that the man should be alone, I will make him an help- meet’ “. God created Eve to be Adam’s help meet. If we carry this concept down through the generations we see that the wife is the husband’s help meet. It is the God given arrangement that the wife is to be the helpmeet of her husband. There is nothing in Scriptures that even hints that all women are to be the helpmeet of all men.

We come now to the oft quoted I Tim. 2:11-15. Verses 11-12, “Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence”. Here again, we must determine by the context and/or by parallel passages whether the Holy Spirit had in mind “women” or “wives”.

We have already considered a parallel passage, i.e. I Cor. 14:34-35, and have found that it is wives being spoken of in that passage. And the context of I Tim. 2:11-15 also points to wives as the intended subject. Note verse 15, “Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing if they continue…..”. Obviously, the word “they” and the idea of childbearing refer to a wife and her husband.

So, both parallel passages and the context point to the subject of I Tim. 2:11-15 as wives, not women.

I believe that Acts 18:26 is helpful in determining if women are allowed to teach men. We read in verses 24-25 of, “A certain Jew named Apollos, born at Alexandria” who had been “instructed in the way of the Lord…..and taught diligently the things of the Lord, knowing only the baptism of John”. Then in verse 26 we read, “and he began to speak boldly in the synagogue: whom when Aquila and Priscilla had heard, they took him unto them, and expounded unto him the way of God more perfectly”. Note that we are told that Apollos was taught by “they” that “took him”. There is no indication that both Aquila and Priscilla “took him” but that only Aquila “expounded unto him the way of God”. I believe that God’s Word is accurate in every detail and that if Priscilla had not also taught Apollos the Word of God would have made the distinction. If we accept the Word in its most obvious meaning, this verse tells us that Priscilla taught a man, Apollos, who was not her husband.

In conclusion, we are told a number of times that wives are to be subject to the authority of their husbands. We are not told anywhere that I can find, that the male gender is in authority over the female gender.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to respond, please send your letter to: [email protected]

August 8, 2022/ Religion

A STUDY OF FORGIVENESS IN GOD’S PLAN OF SALVATION – Right Word Truth

maximios /

Most believe that the key to God’s plan of salvation is the forgiveness of sins. That is to say, it is thought that once the believer’s sins are forgiven, he is saved. But on what scriptures is that belief based? In point of fact, if one begins the study of forgiveness with the Old Testament it is clear that the Old Testament had absolutely nothing to say about forgiveness in relation to salvation. Furthermore, this study will discuss every passage in the entire Bible, Old and New Testaments, in which forgiveness is mentioned and the reader will see that there are no scriptures that tell us that forgiveness of sins is for the purpose of salvation. This paper will give the Scriptural proof of eight different results of forgiveness of sins, not one of which is for salvation.

We will discuss the following topics from God’s Word:

WHAT DO WE MEAN BY “SALVATION”?

A CONSIDERATION OF THE DISTINCTION BETWEEN WHAT MAN IS AND WHAT MAN DOES

A CONSIDERATION OF VERSES THAT SEEM TO SAY THAT FORGIVENESS OF SINS DOES SAVE

EIGHT REASONS THAT GOD FORGIVES SINS

APPENDIX 1:WHAT IS THE GOSPEL OF SALVATION?

APPENDIX 2: EIGHT REASONS FOR CHRIST’S DEATH ON THE CROSS

APPENDIX 3: A CONSIDERATION OF ALL THE REMAINING PASSAGES IN THE BIBLE THAT SPEAK OF FORGIVENESS

APPENDIX 4: THE MEANING OF ALL THE HEBREW AND GREEK WORDS TRANSLATED “FORGIVE”

WHAT DO WE MEAN BY “SALVATION”?

Obviously, if one is saved, he is saved from something unto something else. This study will focus on what it means to be saved from the grave unto resurrection life.

A CONSIDERATION OF THE DISTINCTION BETWEEN WHO MAN IS AND WHAT MAN DOES

What I mean by the distinction between who man is and what he does will be seen as we consider the fact that all men are in Adam, that is who man is. And all men sin because they are in Adam, that is what man does.

Let us consider the passage in Romans seven wherein Paul records his heart-wrenching struggle with his “body of death”. “For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin. For that which I do, I allow not: for what I would, that do I not; but what I hate, that do I. ……….For I know that in me, (that is in my flesh) dwelleth no good thing…….O wretched man that I am! who shall deliver me from the body of this death?” (Rom. 7:14-24). Paul’s experience is no different than any other child of God. We all struggle with doing what is good because as long as we are in our bodies of death we are drawn to doing that which is not good.

This “body of death” is, of course, unacceptable to a holy God because it is drawn to sin, and therefore must die. But what man does can be, and is, forgiven. In short, there is a difference between who man is and what he does. Man is a creature in a body of death. That body of death must die, and a resurrection body is given to every believer on the day of resurrection.

To put it in other terms, God forgives what we do, but He does not forgive who we are. If He did forgive who we are then we would not have to die. But we do indeed die and that death frees us from our body. But we are not left in the grave, we are resurrected unto life in a body that is incorruptible and will not die. So it is not forgiveness of sins that saves us from the grave, it is resurrection. That is to say, even though our sins are forgiven, our bodies of death must die. So resurrection is God’s answer to the fact that our bodies of death must die.

Most believe that because the believer’s sins are forgiven he is saved from the grave. But that is not only illogical it is not supported by Scripture. It is illogical because forgiveness of sins does not save anyone from dying. All men, believers and unbelievers alike, die. It is unscriptural because of what we read in I Cor. 15:12-23. That is a passage wherein Paul answers the false teaching that there is no resurrection. Basically his point is summed up in verses 16-17 which read, “For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised: and if Christ be not raised, your faith is in vain; ye are yet in your sins”. Paul speaks of “your faith”. That tells us that it is believers, i.e. those who are saved, about whom he wrote, “ye are yet in your sins”. Paul is saying here that apart from resurrection we are not saved from the grave, that we are yet in our sins. I believe that when Paul wrote about believers being yet in their sins, he was saying that due to the fact that our bodies are not acceptable to a holy God, it must therefore die. Again, we must bear in mind that forgiveness does not save anyone from death. And it is not forgiveness that saves the believer from the grave because Paul tells us that when the believer dies he is “yet in ” his “sins”.

Let us consider Numbers 14:20 “And the Lord said, ‘I have pardoned according to thy word”. Let us consider this passage. We read in verse 1 that the “congregation lifted up their voice, and cried; and the People wept that night. and all the children of Israel murmured against Moses and against Aaron. In verse 11 we read that the “Lord said unto Moses, ‘How long will this People provoke Me: and how long will it be ere they believe Me, for all the signs which I have shewed among them?”. In verses 13-19 Moses makes his case to the Lord that if He does not bring this people into the land, the enemies of Israel will count that as a victory for themselves. But in verse 23 we read the Lord saying, “Surely they shall not see the land which I sware unto their fathers, neither shall any of them that provoked Me see it”. In other words, that generation was pardoned but they died without seeing the land that had been promised. Heb. 3:17-4:2 tells us a great deal more of these people who rebelled, so let us consider that passage.

Heb. 3:17-4:2 reads, “But with whom was He grieved forty years? was it not with them that had sinned, whose carcasses fell in the wilderness? and to whom sware He that they should not enter into His rest, but to them that believed not? So we see that they could not enter in because of unbelief. ……the word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it”.

My point is that some had been pardoned of their sins, but they did not enter the land because they did not have faith. I believe that entrance into the land in this passage in Heb. is a shadow of eternal salivation, i.e. that without faith, one does not have eternal life. So we see that to be pardoned does not automatically lead to eternal salvation. We must not assume something that is not stated, but we must, as always, consider the context.

So if forgiveness is not what saves the believer from the grave, what does forgiveness of sins mean to the believer? In a section below is a list and discussion of the eight reasons God forgives sins and as the reader will see in that section, there is not one verse that tells us that forgiveness saves the believer from the grave. The only reason God forgives the believer’s sins that is true of all dispensations is that forgiveness of sins allows the believer, in his temporal life, to fellowship with a holy God.

A DISCUSSION OF VERSES THAT SEEM TO SAY THAT FORGIVENESS OF SINS  SAVES

I understand that the statement that forgiveness of sins does not in itself save the believer from the grave, is not what most people understand the Bible to teach. This section, therefore is devoted to the passages that seem to say otherwise.

ACTS 20:28

Acts 20:28, “Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which He hath purchased with His own blood“. There is no question that believers were “purchased” with the blood of Christ. But that purchase is not what saves the believer from the grave because, as we read in I Cor. 15:17, apart from resurrection, “ye are yet in your sins” and are perished. In other words, the believer is purchased by the blood of Christ but even that purchase is incomplete in terms of salvation from the grave because without resurrection, the believer is yet in his sins and is “perished”.

Because salvation from the grave is in resurrection, I believe that we may conclude that the purchase made by Christ’s blood is in two steps. Step one is to purchase us and step two is to raise His purchased possession from the grave. It is not being purchased that saves us, it is resurrection that saves the believer from the grave. I Peter 1:18-19 is of a very similar theme.

I Peter 1:18-19 reads, “forasmuch as you know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things……but with the precious blood of Christ, as of a Lamb without blemish and without spot”. The Greek word translated “redeemed” in this verse means, according to the Strong’s Dictionary “to ransom”. Webster’s Dictionary defines “ransom” as the “redeeming of a captive by payment of a consideration”. So we were captives bought with the blood of Christ. But we remain “captives” in the grave until resurrection. Therefore, the redemption is not complete until resurrection.

ROMANS 5:9

Romans 5:9, “Much more then, being now justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him”. This “wrath” is the coming wrath to be meted out by God in the day of wrath upon those unbelievers who are alive at the time of the second coming of Christ. Therefore, this passage has to do with temporal lives, not with salvation from the grave. (For those who may believe that this wrath refers to the wrath the unbeliever suffers at death may I suggest the paper on this web-site  Will Unbelievers Be Raised For Judgment?. That paper will give the Scriptural reasons for my belief that the day of wrath will be after the rapture and will therefore come upon unbelievers who will be alive at the time of the second coming of Christ.

COLOSSIANS 1:14

We read in Col. 1:14, “In Whom we have redemption through His blood, even the forgiveness of sins“. The Greek word translated “redemption” is the same as in Rom. 3:24-26 and means “deliverance”. From what and to what is the believer delivered in this context? Is the believer delivered from the grave through Christ’s blood? Actually no, believers are not delivered from the grave through His blood, we are delivered through His resurrection. I say that because Paul tells us in I Cor. 15 that apart from resurrection believers are yet in their sins. Paul goes further in that passage to say that if Christ had not been raised believers are “perished”.

So if it is not a deliverance from the grave about which this verse speaks what then is it? Let us answer that question from the context. We read in the previous verse, i.e. verse 13, “Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated us into the kingdom of His dear Son”.. We are delivered from the “power of darkness” in our temporal lives. And we are translated into “the kingdom of His dear Son” in our temporal lives. My point is that the context speaks of blessings enjoyed in the temporal lives of the believer. Therefore, it is in keeping with the context that verse 14 is also in reference to our temporal lives.

Let us consider once again the question: from what to what is the believer delivered in this context? As the reader will see in the section below on the eight reasons God forgives sins, the believer is forgiven his sins so that he might fellowship with a holy God. In short, I believe that the deliverance Paul speaks of in Col. 1:14 is the deliverance from sin in our temporal lives through Christ’s blood in order that we might fellowship with Him..

This verse may be understood to say, “In Whom we have deliverance in our temporal lives through His blood, and that deliverance is in the form of forgiveness of sins so that we might fellowship with God”.

COLOSSIANS 2:13

Col. 2:13, “And you being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath He quickened together with Him having forgiven you all trespasses”. Most understand this verse to say that we are resurrected because our sins have been forgiven. But as we learned above, Paul wrote in I Cor. 15 that we are yet in our sins apart from resurrection.  Paul tells us in verse 12 of Col. 2 what it is that results in our being raised. That verse tells us that we are “risen with  Him through the faith of the operation of God”. Note it is faith that results in resurrection. That is to say, God promised that “whosoever believeth in Him shall……….have everlasting life” (Jn. 3:16). In other words, it is God’s promise to those of faith, i.e. to believers, that results in resurrection life. But how then are we to understand Col. 2:13?

Let us consider verse 13 again, “”And you being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath He quickened together with Him having forgiven you all trespasses”. Let us consider the phrase “you being dead”. We cannot take this literally because as we read this, we are not literally dead. Therefore, it must be taken figuratively. Now let us consider the phrase “hath He quickened together with Him”. Again, we cannot take this as a literal fact because as we read this we are not literally “quickened” (i.e. we are already alive), so we must also take this phrase figuratively.

What is Paul’s point in the use of this figurative language? I believe Paul is saying that in our temporal lives we are so sinful that we are already dead and buried, but because God has forgiven us our trespasses He has “quickened” us, i.e. He has  already made us alive unto Him. This verse is not about our literal death and resurrection, it is about our being dead in our sins but made alive unto God in our temporal lives.

The context also points to the conclusion that verse 13 speaks of blessings in our temporal lives. Verse 14 reads, “Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to the cross”. The “ordinances that was against us” were against us in our temporal lives.

EIGHT REASONS THAT GOD FORGIVES SINS

If the forgiveness of sins is not what saves the believer from the grave, why does God forgive sins? The Bible gives us eight reasons for God forgiving sins. Let us consider them.

1) TO LAY HOLD OF EARTHLY, TEMPORAL BLESSINGS IN ACCORDANCE WITH THE OLD COVENANT

Lev. 4:20, 26, 31, 35, and 5:10, 10, 13, 16 18 and 6:7, Lev. 19:22, Numbers 15:25, 26 and 28. “…..and the priest shall make an atonement for them and it shall be forgiven them”. All these verses, and more, have to do with the sacrificial offerings according to the Law of Moses. These verses tell us that as these sacrifices were made the sins of the people were forgiven. But what was the result of the sins being forgiven? That is to say, as we have seen in the sections above, the forgiveness of sins, in and of itself, was not and is not, what saves the believer from the grave. That being the case, what was the purpose of the forgiveness of sins when the sacrificial laws were observed? In order to answer that question we must understand that the sacrificial laws were, of course, part of the Mosaic Law. What was the result of obedience or disobedience to the Mosaic Law?

Let us consider the promises God made to Israel if they obeyed or disobeyed the Law of Moses. Those promises are specifically given in Lev. 26. I will not quote that very long chapter, but as the reader will see as he/she reads that chapter, the Lord told Israel that if they obeyed His Law He would bless them. All those blessings are earthly and temporal blessings, not one is a promise of resurrection life. However, the Law was given to Israel, in part, to give them the opportunity to complete their faith in God by their obedience to the law He gave them. But it was their faith, not their obedience, per se that saved them (“for by grace ye are saved, by grace, not be works…”). (For the Scriptural evidence that salvation has always been by grace and that works complete ones faith please see the paper on this web-site Faith and Works In God’s Plan of Salvation.)

I Kings 8:30. “And hearken Thou to the supplication of Thy servant, and of Thy People Israel, when they shall pray toward this place: and hear Thou in heaven Thy dwelling place: and when Thou hearest, forgive“. This is the prayer of Solomon at the dedication of the temple. In verses 33-34 we read, “When Thy People Israel be smitten down before the enemy, because they have sinned against Thee, and shall turn again to Thee, and confess Thy name, and pray, and make supplicating unto thee in this house: Then hear Thou in heaven, and forgive the sin of Thy servants, and of Thy People Israel, that Thou teach them the good way wherein they should walk, and give rain upon Thy land, which Thou has given to Thy People for an inheritance”. The phrase “and give rain upon Thy land” makes it clear that Solomon’s prayer is for earthy, temporal blessings in accordance with the covenant and promises of God (see Lev. 26).

Let us continue in the study of this prayer with verse 50. “And forgive Thy People that have sinned against Thee, and all their transgressions wherein they have transgressed against Thee, and give them compassion before them who carried them captive, that they may have compassion on them”. Here again this verse alludes to the covenant of Lev. 26 which promises Israel that if they obey the law they will live in abundance in the land promised to their fathers.

Mark 1:4, “John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins”. When one was baptized upon hearing John’s message that person demonstrated that he believed that that message came from God, and he therefore accepted it. It is  belief /faith which leads to salvation from the grave. If the forgiveness of sins is what saved  Paul would not have written that believers were yet in their sins until resurrection.

2) TO BE SAVED FROM TIMES OF TROUBLE

Ps. 32:5-6, “I acknowledge my sin unto thee, and mine iniquity have I not hid. I said, ‘I will confess my transgressions unto the Lord’: and Thou forgavest the iniquity of my sin. Selah. For this shall every one that is godly pray unto Thee in time when Thou mayest be found: surely in the floods of great waters they shall not come nigh unto him”. For what purpose did David confess his transgressions? David tells us exactly the reason for his confession in verse 6. The reason is that so that in times of trouble (“floods of great waters”) those that confess their sins may be saved from them. Again, this verse, like the scriptures quoted above, allude to the old covenant of Lev. 26 which has to do with the temporal lives of those God forgives.

3) TO TAKE ISRAEL AS GOD’S INHERITANCE

Ex. 34:9, “And he (Moses) said, ‘If now I have found grace in Thy sight, O Lord, let my Lord, I pray Thee, go among us; for it is a stiff-necked People; and pardon our iniquity and our sin, and take us for Thine inheritance‘”. Here Moses asks God to pardon the sins of Israel for a reason given in this very passage. That reason was that God would take the nation of Israel for His inheritance. It is clear that not all Israel is of Israel and therefore, not all Israel is God’s inheritance, unbelievers will not be saved unto resurrection life.

4) “FOR THY NAME’S SAKE”

Ps. 25:11, “For Thy name’s sake, O Lord, Pardon mine iniquity: for it is great”. The context of this entire Psalm concerns God’s guidance of man in his temporal life.

Dan. 9:18-19, “O my God, incline Thine ear, and hear; open Thine eyes, and behold our desolations, and the city which is called by Thy name: for we do not present our supplications before Thee for our righteousness, but for Thy great mercies. O Lord hear; O Lord forgive; O Lord hearken and do defer not, for thine own sake, O my God: for Thy city and Thy People are called by Thy name”.

I John 2:12, “I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for His name’s sake”.

5) FOR MILLENNIAL BLESSINGS

Is. 55:7, “Let the wicked forsake his way, and the unrighteous man his thoughts: and let him return unto the Lord, and He will have mercy upon him; and (should be “even”) to our God, for He will abundantly pardon“. What will be the result of that merciful pardon? Let us consider the context of this verse. Verses 8-11 are a parenthetical statement describing the sureness of the words of the Lord. If we, for the moment, leave off that parenthetical statement we read, “…let him return unto the Lord and He will have mercy upon him; even to our God, for He will abundantly pardon……..For ye shall go out with joy, and be led forth with peace: the mountains and the hills shall break forth before you into singing, and all the trees of the field shall clap their hands. Instead of thorns shall come up the fir tree, and instead of the brier shall come up the myrtle tree: and it shall be to the Lord for a name, for an everlasting sign that shall not be cut off”.

Note the “for” after the parenthetical statement. That tells us what the result of the pardon will be. Verses 12-13 are obviously a millennial prophecy. So the result of God’s forgiveness in this context will be the enjoyment of millennial blessings. Those blessings will include, “ye shall go out with joy, and be led forth with peace: the mountains and the hills shall break forth before you into singing…..”

Jer. 33:7-9, “And I will cause the captivity of Judah and the captivity of Israel to return, and will build them as at the first. And I will cleanse them from all their iniquity, whereby they have sinned against Me; and I will pardon all their iniquities, whereby they have sinned, and whereby they have transgressed against Me. and it shall be to Me a name of joy, a praise and an honour before all nations of the earth, which shall hear all the good that I do unto them: and they shall fear and tremble for all the goodness and for all the prosperity that I procure unto it”. This passage comes in the context of the Babylonian captivity of  Judah in punishment for all their transgressions against the Lord. But it is clear that it will have a fuller fulfillment in the millennium. Note for example that the nation will be “a praise and an honour before all nations of the earth, which shall hear all the good that I do unto them: and they shall fear and tremble for all the goodness and for all the prosperity that I procure unto it”. Note the result of the Lord’s pardon. It is for “all the goodness and for all the prosperity that I procure unto it”. The results of “pardon” in this context are millennial blessings.

6) TO SAVE ISRAEL FROM HER ENEMIES

Luke 1:76-77, “And thou child (John the Baptist) shalt be called the prophet of the Highest: for thou shalt go before the face of the Lord to prepare His way; to give knowledge of salvation unto His people by the remission of their sins”. The context will help us understand this prayer of Zacharias, the father of John the Baptist. This prayer begins in verse 68, “Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for He hath visited and redeemed His people”. Note also verse 71, “that we should be saved from our enemies, and from the hand of all that hate us“. Verse 73-74 speak of “the oath which He sware to our father Abraham, That He would grant unto us, that we being delivered out of the hand of our enemies might serve Him without fear. This is the message of John the Baptist, i.e. “repent for the remission of sins”. In this context the remission of sins has to do with the nation of Israel, so that She will not be destroyed by Her enemies.

7) THE FORGIVENESS OF ISRAEL FROM THE SIN OF CRUCIFYING CHRIST

Luke 23:34, “Then said Jesus, ‘Father forgive them; for they know not what they do’”. This was Christ’s prayer as He hung on the cross dying. We cannot conclude that Christ was praying for their salvation because at that point in time those who crucified Him had very cruelly exhibited their lack of faith in Christ. I believe that God’s forgiveness resulted in the fact that all during the Acts period, salvation was preached to the Jew first.

8) FOR FELLOWSHIP WITH A HOLY GOD

Eph. 1:7, “In Whom we have redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of His grace”. What is the result of forgiveness in this context? We read in verses 4-5, “According as He hath chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love: Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to Himself”. Note that this passage does not say that He hath chosen us to be saved, it says that He has chosen us to be “holy and without blame” and to be adopted as His children. These are blessings enjoyed in our temporal lives.

Let us continue with this passage. Who is the “us” to whom Paul refers? The letter is addressed to “the saints”, so the “us” are believers. So it is believers who were chosen to be holy and without blame and adopted as His children. In other words, God in His matchless grace, not only saves His own from the grave, He makes us His children and makes us holy and He makes us without blame. Why is it is so crucial that we be holy and without blame? As far as I can tell, we are not specifically told, but I believe that in order that we may fellowship with a holy God believers must be made holy and without blame. How does God make us holy and without blame so that we may fellowship with Him? When one believes in Christ his sins are “covered”, they are “not imputed”, they are forgiven, which means that they are “shed forth”. So in this passage the forgiveness of sins is for the purpose of fellowship with God. But because all the other blessings mentioned in this passage are blessings to be enjoyed in our temporal lives, I believe that to be made “holy and without blame” is also a blessing to be enjoyed in our temporal lives.

APPENDIX 1: WHAT IS THE GOSPEL OF SALVATION?

Many believe that the gospel of salvation is that Christ died so that our sins may be forgiven. That is to say, in order to be raised from the grave one must believe that Christ died for their sins. But as I have tried to show in the body of this paper, even though it is absolutely true that Christ did indeed die for our sins, the forgiveness of sins, in and of itself, i.e. without resurrection, does not save believers from the grave.  We must also bear in mind that the believer’s sins are forgiven but when we die we are “yet in our sins”. In other words, the forgiveness of sins does not save us from the grave, it is resurrection by which the believer is saved from the grave. Also, we are never told that it is Christ’s death on the cross that must be believed in order to be saved. I would ask the reader to consider the scriptures below that tell us exactly what must be believed in order to be saved. (For a complete study of the question of what is the gospel of salvation please see the paper on the web-site Is There More Than One Gospel of Salvation?.)

Jn. 1:12, “But as many as received Him, to them gave He power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on His name”.

3:16, “For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life”.

3:18, “He that believeth on Him is not condemned; but he that believeth not is condemned already”.

6:40, “And this is the will of Him That sent Me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on Him, may have everlasting life; and I will raise him up at the last day”.

6:47, “Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on Me hath everlasting life”.

11:25, “Jesus said unto her, ‘I am the resurrection and the life; he that believeth in Me, though he were dead, yet shall he live”.

20:30-31, “And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of His disciples, which are not written in this book; but these are written that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing ye might have life through His name”.

Acts 16:30-31, “What must I do to be saved? And they said, ‘Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house”.

Rom. 3:26, “….that He might be just and the Justifier of him which believeth in Jesus“.

I John 4:15, “Whosoever shall confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwelleth in him, and he in God”.

APPENDIX 2: EIGHT REASONS FOR CHRIST’S DEATH ON THE CROSS

One might ask, if Christ’s death on the cross is not what must be believed in order to be saved, and His blood shed on the cross for the forgiveness of our sins is not what saves us from the grave, what was the reason for Christ’s death on the cross? This section answers that question.

1) TO FULFILL PROPHECY AND TYPE

We read in Is. 53:4-10 the prophecy of the death of Jesus Christ. “surely He hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows, yet we did esteem Him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted. But He was wounded for our transgressions, He was bruised for our iniquities; the chastisement of our peace was upon Him; and with His stripes we are healed. …..He was oppressed, and He was afflicted, yet He opened not His mouth: He is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so He openeth not His mouth. ……He was cut off out of the land of the living; for the transgression of My people was He stricken. And He hath made His grave with the wicked, and with the rich in His death……Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise Him; He hath put Him to grief.….”.

It is clear that Christ fulfilled this prophecy and the fact that Christ is called “the Lamb of God” is proof that He fulfilled the type of the sacrificial lambs of the Old Testament.

2) FOR THE BLOOD OF THE NEW COVENANT

We read in Matt. 26:28, “For this is My blood of the new testament (should be “covenant”), which is shed for many for the remission of sins”. Many people believe that the new covenant will save Israel, which belief makes a slight digression quite necessary.

We read of the new covenant in Jer. 31:33, “But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God and they shall be My People”. Please note that there is nothing in this statement that would lead one to conclude that by putting the law in the hearts of Israel, they will be saved. But let us continue.

As we compare two Old Testament passages we will see that the new covenant is made with believers, therefore, it is not an instrument of salvation. It is an added blessing given to those believing Israelites in the millennial land of Israel. We read in Ezek. 20:33-38 of the gathering of Israel for the millennium. But, as we read in verse 38, we will see that not all Israel will be allowed entrance into the Land. “And I will purge out from among you the rebels, and them that transgress against Me; I will bring them forth out of the country where they sojourn, and they shall not enter into the Land of Israel…”. Obviously, as the context proves, those who will be purged are unbelievers.

Ezek. 36:24-28 also speaks of the gathering of Israel for the millennium. “For I will take you from among the heathen, and gather you out of all countries, and will bring you into your own land. Then will I sprinkle clean water upon you, and ye shall be clean…..a new heart also will I give you and a new spirit will I put within you; and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh. and I will put My spirit within you, and cause you to walk in My statutes, and ye shall keep My judgments, and do them. And ye shall dwell in the land that I gave to your fathers; and ye shall be My People, and I will be your God”. A comparison of this passage with Jer. 31:31-34 will show that this passage does indeed speak of the new covenant.

But what is important to note is that those who will receive the new heart and keep God’s commandants in accordance with the new covenant are in the Land. As we learned in Ezek. 20, quoted above, only believers will be in the Land. That means that the new covenant is made with believers, and believers only. Unbelievers will not be allowed entrance into the Land and will not, therefore, even partake of the new covenant. That being the case, obviously, the new covenant does not save those to whom it is given. they are saved through their faith.

Another reason I do not believe that the new covenant saves is found in Jer. 31:34, “And they shall teach no more every man his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord:’ for they shall all know Me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more”. The Hebrew word translated “for” in the phrase “for I will forgive their iniquity” should have been translated “because”. In other words, all Israel in the Land will know God because He will forgive them. Again, this passage does not tell us that the new covenant will save Israel and the therefore the new covenant is not an instrument of salvation. .

3) TO DELIVER US FROM THE PRESENT AGE

GALATIANS 1:4

Gal. 1:4, “Who gave Himself for our sins, that He might deliver us from this present evil world, according to the will of God and our Father”. The Greek word translated “world” is “aion”. The definition in the Companion Bible reads, “an age, or age-time, the duration of which is indefinite, and may be limited or extended as the context of each occurrence may demand. The root meaning of aion is expressed by the Heb. olam….which denotes indefinite, unknown or concealed duration…..”.

Salvation is a deliverance from the grave, not from this present evil age. Therefore this verse is not about salvation unto eternal life.

4) TO COVER THE SINS OF THE BELIEVER

Romans 3:25 reads, “Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in His blood, to declare His righteousness for the remission of sins……..” In order to understand the meaning of the Greek word translated “propitiation” we must understand the Hebrew equivalent which is “kaphar”.

The Hebrew word “kaphar” occurs many times and is almost always translated “atonement”. But what does “atonement” mean? For the answer to that question we will look at the first occurrence of the word as found in Gen. 6:14 where God tells Noah how to build the ark, “Make thee an ark of gopher wood; rooms shalt thou make in the ark, and shalt pitch it within and without with pitch”. The note in the Companion Bible on the word “pitch” is extremely helpful. That note reads, “Coat it. Heb. kaphar, to cover; the only word for ‘atonement’ in the OT so that it is only atonement that can keep the waters of judgment from us”.

What does “kaphar”, i.e. “atonement” mean in terms of salvation? Let us consider the context of Romans 3:25. We read in verse 22 of the “righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe….”. Please note that this righteousness is “by faith of Jesus Christ“. Both the NIV and the NASB have “faith in Jesus Christ”. This is the message of salvation which says that “whosoever believeth on Him” hath eternal life.

One more thing that must be appreciated is the reason that Christ is the propitiation of our sins. We read in verse 25 exactly what that reason was, “to declare His righteousness for the remission of sins”. What does that tell us? It tells us that a holy God cannot look upon, or fellowship with, sinful man, so by covering those sins He maintains His own righteousness while He fellowships with His children. But please note, there is no hint that this covering of sins (i.e. “propitiation”) is for the purpose of salvation.

5) RECONCILIATION OF ALL THINGS

Col. 1:20, “And having made peace through the blood of His cross, by Him to reconcile all things unto Himself, by Him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven”.

Many believe that reconciliation is the same as salvation. That is to say, they believe that when we believe in Christ we are reconciled to God and thereby saved. As we consider Rom. 5:10, however, the reader will see that reconciliation is not the same as salvation. That verse reads, “For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of His Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by His life”. Note the phrase “much more”. If reconciliation is the same as salvation Paul could not have said that salvation was “much more” than reconciliation. For a more complete study of reconciliation please see the paper on terms having to do with salvation. 

6) SO THAT WE SHOULD LIVE UNTO RIGHTEOUSNESS

I Peter 2:24, “Who His own self bare our sins in His own body on the tree, that we being dead to sins should live unto righteousness, by Whose stripes ye were healed”. Does the phrase “live unto righteousness” refer to resurrection life or to this life? I believe the next verse will answer that question, “For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls”. The phrase “but are now returned” refers of course to “now”, not a future time of resurrection. Therefore, the context points to verse 24 as also referring to now, not to resurrection life.

7) TO CREATE THE ONE BODY

We read in Eph. 2:13-16 of the one body. “But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For He is our peace, Who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; having abolished in His flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in Himself of twain one new man, so making peace; and that He might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby”.

It is clear that the one body is made up of believing Jews and Gentiles, therefore, this passage does not have to do with salvation.

8) THE FIRST STEP IN CONQUERING DEATH

We come now to the only reason for Christ’s death on the cross that is related to salvation. It is cleat that it is not His death that conquered the last enemy, it is His resurrection from the dead. We read in I Cor. 15:17-18, “And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins. Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished”.

Paul could not have put it more clearly. If Christ had not risen from the grave there would be no eternal life for anyone. It is Christ’s resurrection that conquered death, not His death on the cross. Of course, there would have been no resurrection if He had not died on the cross. So His death was the first step in conquering death.

APPENDIX 3: A CONSIDERATION OF ALL THE REMAINING PASSAGES IN THE BIBLE THAT SPEAK OF FORGIVENESS

I offer this Appendix so that the reader may have ready access to all the times that the Word of God speaks of forgiveness and thereby being able to test out the veracity of my belief that the Bible never says that forgiveness results in salvation from the grave.

Gen. 50:17, “So shall ye say unto Joseph, ‘Forgive I pray thee now, the trespass of thy brethren and their sin….”. This is a forgiveness from man so does not really enter our discussion of forgiveness in God’s plan of salvation.

Ex. 10:17, “Now therefore forgive I pray thee my sin only this once, and intreat the Lord your God, that He may take away from me this death only”. This is Pharoah’s request to Moses and therefore, again does not really impact on our study of forgiveness in God’s plan of salvation.

Ex. 34:6-7 NASB, “Then the Lord passed by in front of him and proclaimed, ‘The Lord, the Lord God, compassionate and gracious, slow to anger and abounding in lovingkindness and truth; who keeps lovingkindness for thousands, who forgives iniquity, transgression and sin; yet He will by no means leave the guilty unpunished, visiting the iniquity of father on the children…….The fact that “He will visit “the iniquity of father on the children.” proves that this passage obviously does not have to do with salvation unto resurrection life, it has to do with temporal lives.

Ex. 34:9, “And he (Moses) said, ‘If now I have found grace in Thy sight, O Lord, let my Lord, I pray Thee, go among us; for it is a stiff-necked People; and pardon our iniquity and our sin, and take us for Thine inheritance“. Note that Moses asks pardon for Israel in order that God will “take us (Israel) for Thine inheritance”. This is not a prayer for eternal salvation, it is a prayer for God to pardon Israel so that He will be their God and they will be His people.

Lev. 19:22, “And the priest shall make an atonement for him with the ram of the trespass offering before the Lord for his sin which he hath done, and the sin which he hath done shall be forgiven him”. There is no hint in the context, near or far, that this forgiveness was to result in eternal salvation. Why then did God require sacrifices for forgiveness of sin if not for salvation? For the answer to that question let us consider I Kings 8:33-34.

I Kings 8:33-34, “When thy People Israel be smitten down before the enemy, because they have sinned against Thee, and shall turn again to Thee, and confess Thy name….then hear Thou in heaven, and forgive the sin of thy People Israel, and bring them again unto the land which thou gavest unto their fathers”. This prayer is in reference to the old covenant as described in Lev. 26. That chapter describes the earthly blessings that God will bestow on Israel if they obey the law of Moses and the earthly punishments if they disobey. One of those punishments was to be carried away captive out of their land. In I Kings 8 we read of Solomon’s prayer that God will forgive their sins “and bring them again unto the land which thou gavest unto their fathers”. So one of the reasons for forgiveness was that God would allow Israel, in accordance with the Old Covenant to remain in the Land.

Deut. 29:19-21, “And it come to pass, when he heareth the words of this curse, that he bless himself in his heart, saying, ‘I shall have peace, though I walk in the imagination of mine heart, to add drunkenness to thirst the Lord will not spare him, but then the anger of the Lord and His jealousy shall smoke against that man, and all the curses that are written in this book shall lie upon him, and the Lord shall blot out his name from under heaven. And the Lord shall separate him unto evil out of all the tribes of Israel, according to all the curses of the covenant that are written in this book of the law”. This passage speaks of “all the curses that are written in this book”. Therefore, we must conclude that this passage has to do with the terms of the old covenant as described in Lev. 26 which speaks of earthly, temporal blessings and punishments.

Joshua. 24:19-20, “And Joshua said unto the People, ‘Ye cannot serve the Lord: for He is an holy God; He is a jealous God; He will not forgive your transgressions nor your sins. For if ye forsake the Lord, and serve strange gods, then He will turn and do you hurt, and consume you, after that He hath done you good”. We know that this is not a verse that speaks of salvation from the grave because God does not “consume” those who fail to believe in Him. This verse speaks of a punishment of those unforgiven ones to be meted out in their temporal lives. If the withholding of forgiveness is punishment in the temporal lives of those whose sins will not be forgiven, so too the forgiveness resulting in blessings in temporal lives according to the old covenant recorded in Lev. 26.

I Sam. 25:28, “I pray thee forgive the trespass of thine handmaid: for the Lord will certainly make my lord a sure house….”. This is a request from Abigail to David and does not impact our study of forgiveness in God’s plan of salvation because it is the forgiveness of man that is sought.

II Kings 5:18, “In this thing the Lord pardon thy servant, that when my master goeth into the house of Rimmon to worship there, and he leaneth on my hand, and I bow myself in the house of Rimmon, the Lord pardon thy servant in this thing”. Here was a Gentile servant who asked that the Lord forgive his act of service to his master which may have seemed to be bowing down to a false god. Was this a prayer of salvation? What was the punishment, according to the Mosaic Law, of worshiping false gods? Those punishments are all enumerated in Lev. 26, and they are earthly in nature and certainly had nothing to do with salvation unto resurrection life. Therefore I believe that this prayer was to avoid earthly punishments.

II Kings 24:3-4, “Surely at the commandment of the Lord came this upon Judah, to remove them out of His sight, for the sins of Manasseh, according to all that he did; and also for the innocent blood that he shed: for he filled Jerusalem with innocent blood; which the Lord would not pardon“. God would not forgive the sins of Israel and He sent Gentile nations to destroy Jerusalem. Obviously, these are earthly, temporal punishments and have nothing to do with salvation from the grave.

II Chron. 6:21-39 is a record of the same event (i.e. Solomon’s dedication of the temple) as is recorded in I Kings 8 and is discussed above.

II Chron. 7:14 is a continuation of the dedication of Solomon’s temple and is discussed above.

II Chron. 30:18, “For a multitude of the people………had not cleansed themselves, yet did they eat the passover otherwise than it was written. But Hezekiah prayed for them, saying, ‘The good Lord pardon every one”. Salvation is not denied because one eats of the passover not according to the Law. Therefore, I believe that this pardon is not unto resurrection life, it is once again, a prayer for the Lord to forgive so that He would not punishment Israel in accordance with Lev. 26.

Ps. 78:38, “But He, being full of compassion forgave their inquiry, and destroyed them not….”. The fact that we are told that God did not destroy them tells us that this is not a forgiveness unto resurrection life, it is a forgiveness that has to do with temporal lives.

Ps. 85:1-3, “Lord, Thou hast been favourable unto Thy land: Thou hast forgiven the iniquity of Thy People, Thou has covered all their sin. Selah. Thou hast taken away all Thy wrath: Thou hast turned thyself from the fierceness of thine anger”. This passage is not about resurrection life, it is about God forgiving the sins of His People and taking “away all Thy wrath” in relation to temporal lives. Note for example the phrase, “Thou has been favourable unto Thy land“. The fact that the Psalmist speaks of land proves that it has to do with temporal lives. Note also that God has “covered all their sin”. As we saw in our discussion of Numbers 14, even though God had forgiven those who died in the wilderness, they will not be raised unto resurrection life because of their unbelief.

Ps. 86:5, “For thou Lord, are good, and ready to forgive: and plenteous in mercy unto all them that call upon Thee”. The context concerns temporal blessings. Note verse 7 where David speaks of the day of his trouble, “In the day of my trouble I will call upon thee: for Thou wilt answer me”. That tells us again that this forgiveness is unto temporal blessings in a time of trouble because there is no time of trouble in the grave or in resurrection life.

Ps. 103:2-3, “Bless the Lord, O my soul, and forget not all His benefits: Who forgiveth all thine iniquities; Who healeth all thy diseases”. The context, and especially the phrase, “healeth all thy diseases”  is about many of the temporal blessings God gives those He forgives.

Ps. 130:4, “But there is forgiveness with Thee, that Thou mayest be feared”. We read in verse 3, “If thou Lord, shouldest mark iniquities, O Lord who shall stand?” The Psalmist is making the point that none are free from sin and none shall stand in a judgment of works. But salvation is not of works, salvation is dependent on one’s faith in God. Again, this is not forgiveness unto resurrection life.

Jer. 5:1, “Run ye to and fro through the streets of Jerusalem, and see now, and know, and seek in the broad places thereof, if ye can find a man, if there be any that executeth judgment, that seeketh the truth and I will pardon it“. What will be pardoned? The city of Jerusalem. That being the case we must conclude that this is not about salvation unto resurrection life. It is about the sparing of Jerusalem from destruction.

Jer. 5:7, “How shall I pardon thee for this? thy children have forsaken Me, and sworn by them that are no gods: when I had fed them to the full, they then committed adultery, and assembled themselves by troops in the harlots’ houses”. This verse has also to do with the city of Jerusalem (see note above on Jer. 5:1). Verses 9-10 are also helpful as they describe the result of God not pardoning. “Shall I not visit for these things? saith the Lord: and shall not My soul be avenged on such a nation as this? Go ye up upon her walls, and destroy……..”. Obviously, this passage has to do with forgiveness of sins of the people of Israel, and not a forgiveness unto resurrection life.

Jer. 31:34, “And they shall teach no more every man his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord’: for (should be “because”) they shall all know Me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord; for (should be “because”) I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more”. (Please see the discussion above  of the new covenant.)

Jer. 36:2-3, “Take thee a roll of a book, and write therein all the words that I have spoken unto thee against Israel, and against Judah, and against all the nations, from the day I speak unto thee, from the days of Josiah, even unto this day. It may be that the house of Judah will hear all the evil which I purpose to do unto them; that they may return every man from his evil way; that I may forgive their iniquity and their sin”. Forgiveness unto salvation is never given to a nation per se, it is always given to individuals who have faith. The very fact that these words are directed to the nation of Israel proves that the forgiveness spoken of is not unto salvation from the grave.

Lam. 3:42-43, “We have transgressed and have rebelled: Thou hast not pardoned. Thou hast covered thyself with anger, and persecuted us: Thou hast slain, thou hast not pitied“. God does not “persecute” or slay those who reject His gift of salvation. But according to the covenant as described in Lev. 26, those of Israel who transgress against the law of Moses, the punishment certainly is persecution, death and lack of pity. In other words, the lack of pardon in this passage leads to the punishments as described in Lev. 26 of earthly, temporal punishments, not a punishment of eternal death.

Dan. 9:9, “To the Lord our God belong mercies and forgiveness, though we have rebelled against Him”. This comes in the context of Daniel’s prayer which we must understand. We read in 9:2, “In the first year of his reign I Daniel understood by books the number of the years whereof the word of the Lord came to Jeremiah the prophet, that He would accomplish seventy years in the desolations of Jerusalem”. And in verse 5 we read as Daniel continued his prayer, “we have sinned, and have committed iniquity, and have done wickedly, and have rebelled even by departing from Thy precepts and from Thy judgments”. Daniel acknowledges in this prayer the sins of his people and the righteous judgment of God that Jerusalem will be desolate and the people of Israel in captivity for the seventy years according to Jeremiah’s prophecy. This prayer has nothing to do with salvation unto resurrection life, it has to do with God’s forgiving His rebellious People, Israel.

Amos 7:2, “And it came to pass, that when they (the grasshoppers, verse 1) had made an end of eating the grass of the land, then I said, ‘O Lord God, forgive, I beseech Thee: by whom shall Jacob arise? for he is small”. Obviously, this prayer was not a prayer unto salvation, it was a prayer that God would not allow His nation, Israel to perish from the earthly catastrophes described in the context of this chapter.

Micah 7:18, “Who is a God like unto Thee, That pardoneth iniquity, and passeth by the transgression of the remnant of His heritage? He retaineth not His anger for ever, because He delighteth in mercy”. The fact that Micah speaks here of God not retaining His anger forever, tells us that this is a passage about temporal lives, not resurrection life. That is to say, there is no question of God’s anger in resurrection life because all will be righteous.

It is clear from the verses quoted above from the Old Testament that forgiveness, or the lack thereof, had to do with the earthly, temporal rewards or punishments according to the Mosaic Law as recorded in Lev. 26. As we come to the New Testament, we must bear in mind that what is said of forgiveness did not come from a vacuum, it came from the Old Testament. Those who preached in the first century spoke, primarily, to Israel who, of course, would have a mindset from the Old Testament in regard to forgiveness, and most other things, as well.

In short, we must interpret the New Testament from the Old Testament so that we not be led into error in our understanding of the New Testament messages about forgiveness.

One further thought might be helpful. In the Old Testament the emphasis was on works but it was understood that “the just live by faith” (Hab. 2:4). So too in the New Testament faith was completed by works. Therefore, we must bear in mind that whereas some messages, especially in the Gospels, seem to emphasize works, salvation has always been by faith which is completed by works. (Please see the paper on works and faith in God’s plan of salvation for the Scriptural evidence that faith is completed by works, a truth that is a universal one, i.e. it is just as true in the present dispensation as it was in the previous ones.)

Matt. 6:10-12, “Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven. Give us this day our daily bread. And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors”. This comes in the context of the sermon on the mount, none of which has anything to do with eternal salvation, per se. Note the prayer for “daily bread”. This has to do with the needs of temporal lives. It would take us too far from our topic to consider the entire sermon here, but the reader is encouraged to read the entire sermon with an open mind to see if the sermon has to do with temporal or eternal life.  (See also Luke 11:2-4.)

Matt. 6:14-15, “For if ye forgive men their trespasses, your heavenly Father will also forgive you: but if ye forgive not men their trespasses, neither will your Father forgive your trespasses”. Again, there is nothing in this passage which is part of the sermon on the mount that points to its being a message about salvation from the grave. (See also Mark 11:25-26 and Luke 5:20-24. and the  note above on Matt. 6:10-12.)

Matt. 9:2-6, “And behold, they brought to Him a man sick of the palsy, lying on a bed: and Jesus seeing their faith said unto the man sick of the palsy; ‘Son, be of good cheer; thy sins be forgiven thee’. And behold certain of the scribes said within themselves, ‘This man blasphemeth’. And Jesus knowing their thoughts said, ‘wherefore think ye evil in your hearts?’ For whether it is easier to say, ‘Thy sins be forgiven thee’: or to say, ‘Arise, and walk?’ But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins;…..”. Unlike the Old Testament passages that speak of forgiveness, the context does not tell us the result of the forgiveness given this sick man, except that he was made well. However, given that the Old Testament does not speak of forgiveness unto resurrection life, no one in this scene would have thought that the forgiveness was unto salvation (see also Mark 2:5-10).

Matt. 12:31-32, “Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men. And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him…….”. There is nothing in this context to suggest that forgiveness is part of God’s plan of salvation. In point of fact, as shown in the section above, the gospel of salvation has to do with belief in Christ. A believer in Christ cannot lose his salvation. For that reason alone I believe that this passage is not about salvation. (See also Mark 3:28, Luke 12:10.)

Matt. 18:21, “Then came Peter to Him, and said, ‘Lord, how oft shall my brother sin against me, and I forgive him?…..” Given that this is man forgiving sins it cannot be taken to apply to salvation unto resurrection life. (See also Luke 17:3-4.)

Matt. 18:35, “So likewise shall My heavenly Father do also unto you, if ye from your hearts forgive not every one his brother their trespasses”. The phrase “so likewise” refers to verse 24, “the lord was wroth and delivered him to the tormentors, till he should pay all that was due unto him”. Is our Lord saying in this verse that one cannot be saved unless he forgives his brother? I do not believe that is the message that we are to get from this verse because forgiving our brothers is simply not the gospel of salvation. As proved in the section above, salvation is given as a gift to all those who believe in Christ.

What then is the point of this verse? It is the point of the parable of the unmerciful servant. We read in verses 21-22, “Then came Peter to Him, and said, ‘Lord, how oft shall my brother sin against me, and I forgive him: till seven times’? Jesus saith unto him, ‘I say not unto thee, Until seven times: but until seventy times seven. Therefore is the kingdom of Heaven likened unto….”. The parables of the kingdom of Heaven describe something of that kingdom, or, as in the case of this parable, what one must do to enter into the kingdom of Heaven. The paper on this web-site will prove that only believers will enter into the kingdom of Heaven. Those who will enter into it will do so because of their faith, i.e. their belief in Christ. But as James makes clear in the second chapter of his epistle, works complete one’s faith. (For a more complete study of the relationship of works and faith, the reader is asked to see the paper on that subject.)

Forgiveness then, is one of the works by which one completes his faith that will allow him entry into the kingdom of Heaven. (See also Luke 17:3-4)

Matt. 26:28, “For this is My blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins”. The new covenant was discussed above in the passage quoted from Jer. 31.

Mark 2:5, “When Jesus saw their faith, He said unto the sick of the palsy, ‘son, thy sins be forgiven thee’”. (Please see comments on Luke 5:20-24 below.)

Mark 11:25-26, “And when ye stand praying forgive, if ye have ought against any; that your Father also which is in heaven may forgive you your trespasses. But if ye do not forgive, neither will your Father which is in heaven forgive your trespasses”. Again, our forgiving others is simply not the gospel of salvation. (Please see the discussion above on Matt. 18:35.)

Luke 5:20-24, “And when He saw their faith, He said unto him, ‘Man, thy sins are forgiven thee.’ And the scribes and the Pharisees began to reason saying, ‘Who is This Which speaketh blasphemies? who can forgive sins, but God alone? But when Jesus perceived their thoughts, He answering said unto them, ‘What reason ye in your hearts? whether it is easier, to say ‘Thy sins be forgiven thee’: or to say “Rise up and walk?’ But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power upon earth to forgive sins,,’ (He said unto the sick of the palsy,) ‘I say unto thee, ‘Arise, and take up thy couch, and go into thine house’”. Note that Christ “saw their faith“. We are told at least ten times (please see Ap. I of this paper) that it is belief (faith) in Christ that saves. Given that the faith of these men were seen by the Lord, we may conclude that this man’s faith saved him. The forgiveness therefore, was an added blessing as the study of the new covenant showed.

Luke 7:42, “And when they had nothing to pay, he frankly forgave them both…..”. This man forgave them their debt. We might say that he gave them the money that was owed him. “Karizoma” is the Greek word translated “forgave”. This is a very interesting Greek word and I believe a slight departure from our main theme might be a blessing. The Greek word is used 23 times in the New Testament but is translated “forgive” or some form of “forgive” only 11 times. Like most words in any language, it has shades of meanings. The first occurrence is found in Luke 7:21 where it is translated “gave”. That verse reads, “And in that same hour He cured many of their infirmities and plagues, and of evil spirits; and unto many that were blind He gave sight”. I find it very interesting that this word carries with it the idea of “gave”. It seems to suggest that when something is forgiven, something is given along with it.

Luke 7:43, “Simon answered and said, ‘I suppose that he, to whom he forgave most”. Here again a debt was forgiven. Please see note above on verse 42.

Luke 7:47-48, “Wherefore I say unto thee, her sins, which are many, are forgiven; for she loved much: but to whom little is forgiven, the same loveth little’. and He said unto her, ‘Thy sins are forgiven‘”. Verse 50, which is the end of this incident is key to our understanding God’s plan of salvation. That verse reads, “and He said to the woman, ‘Thy faith hath saved thee; go in peace’”. Note that in verse 48 our Lord had told the woman that her sins were forgiven. But it was not the forgiveness of sins that saved her, it was her faith which she exhibited by her generous treatment of Christ that saved her.

John 20:22-23, “And when He had said this, He breathed on them, and saith unto them, ‘Receive ye the Holy Ghost’: Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained’”. For what purpose were the disciples sent by Christ? It was to preach Christ. I believe that as one believed the message of the disciples and believed on the One about Whom they preached, their sins were remitted. In other words, if we interpret this passage in accordance with what the Bible teaches about salvation and forgiveness, we see that when the ones to whom the disciples preached became believers, they were forgiven their sins.That is how the disciples would have understood it because that is what the Old Testament teaches about forgiveness. (Please see the note above on Luke 7:47-48 .)

Acts 8:22, “Repent therefore, of this thy wickedness, and pray God, if perhaps the thought of thine heart may be forgiven thee”. A man called “Simon” had tried to purchase the power of healing that came from the Holy Ghost. Verse 22 is Peter’s answer to this man’s sin. Verse 24 tells us exactly the goal of what Simon desired in his forgiveness. “Then answered Simon, and said, ‘Pray ye to the Lord for me, that none of these things which ye have spoken come upon me‘” (i.e. “thy money perish with thee”). It was not salvation that Simon sought by asking for forgiveness, it was the fear of losing his money.

Acts 26:18, “To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in Me“. This verse comes in the passage that records Paul’s explanation to Agrippa of Paul’s conversion experience. Note that these who were sanctified “by faith” were given forgiveness. That is to say, those who Paul led to God were added to those who had been sanctified by faith and they were also given forgiveness of sins and an inheritance. In short, as is true of other passages, this one speaks of forgiveness as an added blessing to one who has faith.

Rom. 4:7, “Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered”. This verse has been discussed in the sections above on man’s sins and sin. That section proved from Scripture that it was not forgiveness of man’s sins that saved him because as we read in I Cor. 15:17, apart from resurrection, the believer is “yet in his sin”. That is to say, man must die in order to rid himself of his body of death, and when he is resurrected he will have a body that is acceptable to dwell with a holy God.

II Cor. 2:6-8, “Sufficient to such a man is this punishment, which was inflicted of many so that contrariwise ye ought rather to forgive him and comfort him lest perhaps such a one should be swallowed up with overmuch sorrow. Wherefore I beseech you that ye would confirm your love toward him”. This is man’s forgiveness of man and therefore cannot have anything to do with God”s plan of salvation.

II Cor. 2:10, “To whom ye forgive any thing, I forgive also: for if I forgave any thing, to whom I forgave it, for your sakes forgave it I  in the person of Christ”. Paul speaks of man forgiving man. Therefore, this is obviously not a forgiveness unto resurrection life.

II Cor.12:13, “For what is it wherein ye were inferior to other churches, except it be that I myself was not burdensome to you? forgive me this wrong”. Again, this is forgiveness of man unto man and therefore has nothing to do with God’s plan of salvation.

Eph. 4:32, “And be ye kind one to another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God for Christ’s sake hath forgiven you”. The next verse (5:1) reads, “Be ye therefore followers of God….”. The word “therefore” tells us that what was written just before verse 5:1 should be the result in the truth of 5:1. That is to say, Paul exhorts his readers to be “followers of God” because God has forgiven us. This thought is consistent with the fact that this passage is recorded in the “walk” portion of this epistle.

Col. 3:13, “Forbearing one another, and forgiving one another, if any man have a quarrel against any; even as Christ forgave you, so also do ye”. This passage does not say anything about Christ’s forgiveness resulting in salvation from the grave.

Heb. 9:22, “And almost all things are by the law purged with blood: and without shedding of blood is no remission“. This is an obvious reference to the sacrifices contained in the Mosaic Law. As was proved in this paper, the result of obedience to the law as recorded in Lev. 26 was earthly blessings.

Heb. 10:18, “Now where remission of these is, there is no ore offering for sin”.

James 5:15, “And the prayer of faith shall save the sick, and the Lord shall raise him up; and if he have committed sins, they shall be forgiven him”. This is obviously has to do with forgiveness of sins in the context of man’s temporal life, not resurrection life.

I John 1:9, “If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness”. Righteousness is to be seen by God as having not sinned. But again, when the believer dies he is “yet in his sin” apart from resurrection. So it is not because God sees the believer as not having sinned that saves us, it is resurrection.

APPENDIX 4: A STUDY OF ALL THE HEBREW AND GREEK WORDS TRANSLATED “FORGIVE”

The four Hebrew words translated “forgive are: “sahlagh”, “s’lee ghah”, “nahsah” and “kaphar”.

SAHLAGH

The Hebrew word “sahlagh” occurs 44 times and is translated “pardon” or “forgive”. The first occurrence of “sahlagh” is found in Ex. 34:9, “And he (Moses) said, ‘If now I have found grace in Thy sight, O Lord, let my Lord, I pray Thee, go among us; for it is a stiff-necked People; and pardon our iniquity and our sin, and take us for Thine inheritance”.

In point of fact, not one of the passages that speak of pardon has anything to do with salvation unto eternal life. But one must bear in mind that the Old Testament has very little to say about eternal life, as it is mostly a history of God’s dealing with His people, Israel. But let us continue for now with the Hebrew words translated “forgiveness”.

S’LEE GHAH

Another Hebrew word translated “forgive is “s’lee ghah” and is from the same root as “sahlagh” discussed in the paragraph above. It is mostly translated “pardon” “forgive” and also “extol”, “cast up” and “exalt’. As is true of “sahlagh”, this word is also never used in the context of forgiveness unto eternal salvation.

NAHSAH

The first occurrence is found in Gen. 13:6 where we read that , “the land was not able to bear“. This Hebrew word is used several hundred times and it is usually translated “bear”, “carry” or “lift up”. But let us consider the verses in Is. 53 that use this word.

Is. 53:4, “Surely He hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows…..”. And Is. 53:12, “He bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors”.

KAPHAR

The Hebrew word “kaphar” occurs many times and is almost always translated “atonement”. But what does “atonement” mean? For the answer to that question we will look at the first occurrence of the word as found in “Gen. 6:14 where God tells Noah how to build the ark, “Make thee an ark of gopher wood; rooms shalt thou make in the arc, and shalt pitch it within and without with pitch”. The note in the Companion Bible on the word “pitch” is extremely helpful. That note reads, “Coat it. Heb. kaphar, to cover; the only word for ‘atonement’ in the OT so that it is only atonement that can keep the waters of judgment from us”.

What does “kaphar”, i.e. “atonement” mean in terms of our question concerning the gospel of salvation? The Greek equivalent is found in Romans 3:25 where we read, “Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation (the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew “kaphar”) through faith in His blood, to declare His righteousness for the remission of sins……..” . Let us put this verse in context so that we are not misled.

We read in verse 22 of the “righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe….”. Please note that this righteousness is “by faith of Jesus Christ“. Both the NIV and the NASB have “faith in Jesus Christ”. This is the message of salvation which says that “whosoever believeth on Him” hath eternal life.

One more thing that must be appreciated is the reason that Christ is the propitiation of our sins. We read in verse 25 exactly what that reason was, “to declare His righteousness for the remission of sins”. What does that tell us? It tells us that a holy God cannot look upon, or fellowship with, sinful man, so by covering those sins He maintains His own righteousness while He fellowships with His children. But please note, there is no hint that this covering of sins (i.e. “propitiation”) is for the purpose of salvation.

There are also four Greek words translated “forgive”. Those words are, “aphieemi”, “apoluo”, aphesis”, and “karizomai”.

APHIEEMI

The word comes from the root meaning “to send”.

It is translated as “leaveth” as in Matt. 4:11, “then the devil leaveth Him”.

It is translated “forsaken” as in Matt. 19:27, “we have forsaken all”.

It is translated “remit” as in John 20:23, “the sins ye remit, they are remitted“.

And it is translated forgive” as in Matt. 6:12, “Forgive us our debts as we forgive our debtors”.

It is clear then that this Greek word means to let go of sins, to leave them, to forsake them.

APOLUO

This Greek word also comes from the root meaning “to send”.

It is translated “to put away” as in Matt. 1:19, “he was minded to put her away“. It is also translated “divorce”.

It is translated “release” as in Matt. 27:17, “whom will ye that I release unto you?”

In Acts 15:30 it is translated “dismissed”. “So when they were dismissed, the came to Antioch….”.

And in Luke 6:37 it is translated “forgive”, “forgive and ye shall be forgiven.

APHESIS

This word is usually translated “remission” or “forgiveness”. But we will consider one verse where a different translation is given and thereby gain a better understanding of it.

We read in Luke 4:18, “to preach deliverance to the captives…..to set at liberty them that are bruised”.

KARIZOMAI

This Greek word is, in my opinion, the most interesting of the words translated “forgive”. It is translated “give“, “granted” or “delivered” 11 of the 23 times it is used.

The first occurrence is found in Luke 7:21 where we read, “He gave sight”.

In Acts 3:14 we read that Israel “desired a murderer to be granted unto them”. the murderer was given unto them.

In Acts 27:24 we read, “God hath given thee all them that sail with thee”.

Romans 8:32 reads that God does “freely give us all things”.

In order to understand this Greek word we must reconcile forgiving with giving. It would seem that true forgiveness includes giving. Let us consider a few verses where “karizomai” is translated “forgive”, bearing in mind that the Greek word means basically, “to give”. .

Let us consider II Cor. 2:6-8, “Sufficient to such a man is this punishment, which was inflicted of many so that contrariwise ye ought rather to forgive him and comfort him lest perhaps such a one should be swallowed up with overmuch sorrow. Where fore I beseech you that ye would confirm your love toward him”.

Bearing in mind that “forgive” actually means “to give” we must ask the question, what was given this man who had sinned when the Corinthians forgave him? Paul asks the Corinthians to “comfort him”. The last phrase also answers that question. “confirm your love toward him”. In this context then forgiveness (as this word is used) means to give comfort and love.

Let us consider Col. 2:13, “And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath He quickened together with Him, having forgiven you all trespasses”. What was given here? I believe an ellipses taken from the verse itself will be helpful. “…..havinggiven you deliverance from all your trespasses”.

As we consider Eph. 4:32 we will see in the Word of God one of the two reasons that Christ bore, covered and pardoned us our sins. Eph. 4:32 reads, “and be ye kind one to another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God for Christ’s sake hath forgiven you”. What was Paul asking the Ephesians to give as they forgave? The context tells us that it was tenderheartedness and kindness. We also read that we should give (forgive) even as God gives (forgives). That means that this verse and this Greek word tells us that when God forgives, He gives kindness and tenderheartedness.

Forgiveness is equated with imputting righteousness in Rom. 4:6-8 reads, “Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, saying, ‘Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin”.

CONCLUSION

I know that what has been expressed in this paper is not what most are used to. I also know that there are many people who believe that the gospel of salvation concerns the death and resurrection of Christ, not that Christ is the Son of God. But we cannot dismiss the fact that we read quite specifically ten times what one must believe in order to be saved. It is that we must believe Who Christ is, that He is the Son of God.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to respond please write to me at:[email protected]

August 8, 2022/ Religion

“YE MUST BE BORN AGAIN” – Right Word Truth

maximios /

We read in John 3:3, “…..except a man be born again he cannot see the kingdom of God”. What does it mean to be born again? Does it refer to individuals or does it refer to the rebirth of the nation of Israel? Let us search the Scriptures for the answers to these questions.

A CONSIDERATION OF THE PHRASE  “BORN AGAIN”?

John 3:3, “…..except a man be born again he cannot see the kingdom of God”. The Greek word translated “again” is “anothen”. Because the meaning of any word is established by its usage, we will look at every occurrence of the word in the New Testament.

The first occurrence is found in Matt. 27:51 which speaks of the curtain that was torn at the time of the crucifixion of Christ and reads, “…the vail of the Temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom….”. In this first occurrence “anothen” is translated “top”.

Mark 15:36 tells of the same event and is, of course also translated “top“.

Luke 1:3, “It seemed good to me also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the very first.…”. Here “anothen” is translated “first”.

We will return to the two verses in John 3 where “anothen” is translated “again”.

Jn. 19:11, “”….Thou could have no power at all except it were given thee from above“. In this verse “anothen” is translated “above”.

Jn. 19:23, “…now the coat was without seam, woven from the top throughout”. Again “anothen” is translated “top”.

Acts 26:5, “Which knew me from the beginning....”. Here it is translated “beginning”.

Gal. 4:9, “But now after that ye have known God, or rather are known of God, how turn ye again to the weak and beggarly elements, whereunto ye desire again to be in bondage”. Because this is the only time, apart from Jn. 3, that “anothen” is translated “again” it warrants further consideration. In verse 8 Paul wrote, “Howbeit then, when ye knew not God, ye did service unto them which by nature are no gods”. Evidently, these Galatians were wanting, in some ways, to go back to their original state of worshiping idols. They were wanting to go back to the way things were at the beginning. The concept of going back to the way things were at the beginning is in keeping with the translation of Luke 1:3 and Acts 26:5 quoted above. It is not used in the sense of “again”, but in the sense of “from the beginning”.

James 1:17, “Every perfect gift is from above“. The last three occurrences are translated “above”.

James 3:15, “This wisdom descendeth not from above.….”.

James 3:17, “The wisdom that descendeth from above is first pure, then peaceable gentle….”.

We have seen that “anothen” is used in the sense of “from above”, “from the top” and “from the first , or “beginning, but never in the sense of “again”.

We are now ready to discuss Jn. 3. The Holy Spirit never uses the word “anothen” to express the idea of “again“. That, in my opinion, is sufficient evidence to prove that “anothen” should be translated “above” not “again”. But let’s consider the context as well. I believe that this entire passage presents one single message. Note that verses 3, 5, 6, 7 and 8 all speak of being born of the Spirit. In verse 3 it is “born from above”, in verse 5 it is “born of water and of the spirit“, in verse 6 it is born of the Spirit, verse 7 repeats verse 3 and in verse 8 it is, “so is every one that is born of the Spirit“. So, to be born from above is the same as to be born of the Spirit . Having said that we can determine from the context that speaks of this birth, especially verse 6, whether this birth is “from above” or if it is “again”.

We read in verse 6, “That which is born of the flesh is flesh and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit”. In other words, Jesus is explaining to Nicodemus that there is a contrast between the birth of the flesh and the birth of the Spirit. There is no contrast between being born of the flesh and being born again. But there is indeed a contrast between being born of the flesh and being of the Spirit. When man is born of the Spirit, he is born from God, Who is above. The message is that one must be born of the Spirit, i.e. from God, which is the same as saying that he must be born from above, in order to enter the kingdom of God. I suppose it can be argued that to be born from above is to be born again, but if we translate “anothen” as “again” we miss the lesson that we are born from above, i.e. from God. Therefore, I believe that Jn. 3:3 should read, “….Except a man be born from above, he cannot see the kingdom of God”.

But what about I Peter 1:3 and 23? I Peter 1:3 reads, “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, Which according to His abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead”. The Greek word translated “again” is not “anothen”, and is correctly translated “again”. But note the context. This verse speaks of resurrection. God has “begotten us again unto a lively hope“. What is that hope? It is, of course, resurrection. We must conclude therefore, that to be born again in this verse refers to resurrection, not to a second birth in this temporal life.

Let us now look at I Peter 1:23-25a, “Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever. For all flesh is as grass, and all the glory of man as the flower of grass. The grass withereth, and the flower thereof falleth away; but the word of the Lord endureth for ever“. There are, in this passage, two sets of contrasts. One is the contrast between the corruptible and the incorruptible seed. The second contrast is between the grass which withers and the word of God which is forever. By comparing these two contrasts we will see that this passage is about resurrection life.

The corruptible seed is analogous to the grass that withers. The incorruptible seed is analogous to the word of God which endures forever. The corruptible seed/grass dies. The contrast is  with the incorruptible seed/word of God which lives forever. The incorruptible seed can only live forever in resurrection. Therefore, I believe that here too “being born again” refers to resurrection life.

But verse 23 begins “Being born again”. The Companion Bible has “having been”. This is a perfect use of the figure of speech ““Heterosis”. The Companion Bible defines “Heterosis” as, “Exchange of one …tense …..for another”.” Is. 53 has several examples of “Hererosis” where future events are put in the past tense. Isaiah wrote, of course, several hundred years before Christ, but we read in Is. 53:4, “Surley He hath borne our griefs, carried our sorrows……”. This figure of speech is used to emphasize the absolute certainty of a future event. In I Peter 1:23 it is used to assure the believer that he will be raised to resurrection life.

So then Jn. 3 speaks of being born from above in one’s temporal life, and I Peter 1 speaks of being born again in resurrection.

Now that we have seen that our Lord told Nicodemus that he must be born from above we are ready to search the Scriptures to determine what it means to be “born from above”.

WHAT DOES IT MEAN TO BE BORN FROM ABOVE?

Nicodemus asked, “how can a man be born when he is old?”. Our Lord’s answer is recorded in verses 5-8. Let us consider verse 8. “The wind bloweth where it listeth and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh and wither it goeth; so is every one that is born of the Spirit”. There is a comparison here by the word “so” in the phrase, “so is every one that is born of the Spirit”.(May I respectfully remind the reader that to be born from above is the same as to be born of the Spirit.) That comparison is between the wind that blows and the Spirit. So in this verse the wind is used as a comparison to  tell us what it means to be born of the Spirit.  In my opinion, that comparison tells us that the man who is born of the Spirit is like the wind in that just as the wind is heard but is not understood, (we don’t know even where it comes from or where it is going), so too the man born of the Spirit is seen and heard but he is not understood by the world any more than the wind is. This is only an opinion and I cannot prove it with other scriptures, so I am open to other interpretations.

IS IT THE INDIVIDUAL OR IS IT THE NATION OF ISRAEL THAT IS BORN FROM ABOVE ?

There are those who believe that it is the nation of Israel that is born from above, i.e. born of the Spirit. They point to such passages as Is. 66:7-9 that speak of the birth of the nation, and to Ezek. 11:19-20 and 37:9. I believe however that being born from above refers to the individual believer, not to the nation. We will consider each of the passages mentioned above in the course of this study. But let me first present the Scriptural evidence for my belief that when Christ spoke of being born of the Spirit He had in mind individuals, not the nation of Israel.

One reason for my belief that John 3 speaks of individuals rather than the nation of Israel is that John’s specific reason for including the signs that he did in his Gospel is given in 20:30-31 and it refers to salvation. That passage reads, “And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of His disciples, which are not written in this book. But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through His name”. So we have the divinely inspired reason for  the recording of the signs in John’s Gospel, i.e. to bring the reader to a saving knowledge of Christ. Salvation is not a national experience, it is an individual experience.

Another reason I believe as I do is that we read in John 3:4 Nicodemus’ question, “How can a man be born from, above?” and our Lord’s answer recorded in verse 8, “….so is every one that is born of the Spirit”. The words “man” and “one” point to individuals, not to a nation.

Having given the reasons for my belief that being born from above (i.e. born of the Spirit) refers to individuals, not the nation of Israel, we are ready to discuss the arguments that suggest the opposite. We may begin with Nicodemus. It is suggested that Nicodemus came as a “representative” of the nation of Israel. If that were the case Christ may have spoken to Nicodemus of things pertaining to the nation. But there is absolutely no Scriptural evidence to suggest that Nicodemus came as a representative of his nation. In fact, in my opinion, the very fact that he came at night (see Jn. 3:2) suggests that he did not want the other leaders of Israel to know he had come to Jesus. It suggests to me that he came on his own behalf. In either case, there is not enough Scriptural evidence to prove either that he came as a representative or that he came on his own behalf. Therefore, I don’t believe the interpretation of this passage can be influenced by either suggestion.

Let us continue with another argument that suggests that “born of the Spirit” refers to the birth of the nation. Our Lord seemed surprised that Nicodemus did not know about the things He was saying. The argument is put forth that Nicodemus should have known of the birth of the nation because it had been spoken of in the Old Testament. (The birth of individuals from above is not spoken of in the Old Testament). Charles Welch writes in his Alphabetical Analysis Part One, page 243, “The doctrine of the new birth is not a new revelation, it belongs to the Old Testament, and the Lord implied as much when He said to Nicodemus: ‘If I have told you earthly things, and ye believe not, how shall ye believe if I tell you heavenly things’”. But there are several reasons for my disagreement with this argument.

Nicodemus was indeed a teacher of Israel and in my opinion would have known of the Old Testament prophecy of the birth of his own nation. I believe that when Christ said, “Art thou a master of Israel, and knowest not these things?” He was not referring to the birth of the nation in the phrase “these things”. I suggest we consider the context in order to determine what things Christ believed Nicodemus should have known.

I believe that “these things” referred to all the things about which Christ spoke in this passage. They include “except a man be born from above he cannot see the kingdom of God” (vs. 3). They include, “except a man be born of water and of the spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God” (vs. 5). . “These things” also include, “That which is born of the flesh is flesh and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit” (vs. 6). The reader will note that we are specifically told that two of “these things” concern entrance into the kingdom of God. And in my opinion, so too does the third as told in verse 6 refer to entrance into the kingdom of God because “flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God” (I Cor. 15:50). So the question is: was it the birth of the nation that Nicodemus did not understand, or was it the requirements for entrance into the kingdom of God that he didn’t understand? The context is centered on the things one needed to know for entrance into the kingdom of God. That leads us to conclude that “all these things” refers to entrance into the kingdom of God.

I am suggesting that what Nicodemus did not understand was how one enters the kingdom of God, not the birth of the nation. That was the specific topic Christ addressed three times in this context. Because entrance into the kingdom, as we shall see in the section below, was based on the judgment of the individual, not a judgment of the nation per se, this points to being born of the Spirit as an individual birth, not a national one. Also, the prophecy of the birth of the nation in Is. 66 is very clearly explained, and not in the least bit difficult to understand. I find it difficult to accept that a leader of Israel did not understand it or did not know of it. On the other hand, while it is true that there are a great many Old Testament prophecies about the kingdom, there are are very few about how one is to enter into it, and even those don’t seem to be understood by many to this day.

One of the passages Mr. Welch suggests that Nicodemus should have known as referring to the birth of Israel is Ezek. 11:19-20. In his Alphabetical Analysis Part 1 page 242 Mr. Welch wrote “Without this new spirit, no man of Israel should ‘see’ or ‘enter’ the kingdom of God”.  The fact that Mr.Welch speaks of “no man” implies, in my opinion, a question of individuals not of a nation, but let us continue with this statement.

Let us consider Ezek. 11:19-20, which reads, “And I will give them one heart, and I will put a new spirit within you; and I will take the stony heart out of them, and will give them an heart of flesh; that they may walk in My statutes, and keep My ordinances, and do them; and they shall be My people and I will be their God“.

Let us consider carefully the “new spirit” that Mr. Welch mentions in reference to Ezek. 11:19. (“I will put a new spirit within you”). Does this new spirit of Ezek. 11 allow one to enter into the kingdom of God as Mr. Welch suggests? In point of fact the consequence of receiving this new spirit is given in the next verse, i.e. “that they may walk in My statutes, and keep My ordinances”. The reader will recognize several phrases of Ezek. 11:19-20 as part of the new covenant which is explained more completely in Jer. 31. My point is that the new spirit in the context of Ezek. 11:19 is not the spirit that enables one to enter into the kingdom of God, it is the spirit of the new covenant which enables believing Israel to obey God’s Law from the heart. Let us continue our study of this question with a comparison of Ezek. 11 to Ezek. 36:24-38.

We read in Ezek. 36:24-27, “For I will take you from among the heathen, and gather you out of all countries, and will bring you into your own land. Then will I sprinkle clean water upon you, and ye shall be clean….a new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you.…… and I will put My spirit within you and cause you to walk in My statutes….and ye shall dwell in the land that I gave to your fathers….”. The reader will see from the phrases in bold type that this passage is connected to the passage quoted above from Ezek. 11. It adds the fact that those to whom the spirit of the new covenant will be given will be those who “dwell in the land“. Note verses 24b-25, “……and will bring you into your own land. Then will I sprinkle clean water upon you….and a new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you…..”(KJV) In other words, first God will bring them into the land and then (after they are in the land) He will give them the spirit of the new covenant. So all the promises of Ezek. 34 will be given to those who are already in the land. Therefore, we must conclude that the spirit of the new covenant is not a requirement for entrance into the land, it is given to those already in the land. (The paper on this web-site The Kingdom of Heaven will prove from Scripture that the Land of Israel is the kingdom of Heaven, or as Mr. Welch puts it, “the kingdom of God”.)

Some may argue that the word “then” is not in the original manuscripts. That is quite true. However, the point is made with other scriptures. Ezek. 20:34-38 for example, explains that there will be a judgment of Israel as to who will be allowed entrance into the Land. We read in verse 38, “And I will purge out from among you the rebels, and them that transgress against Me; …..they shall not enter into the land of Israel“. Matt. 13:40-43 tells of this same judgment, “As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world. The Son of man shall send forth His angels and they shall gather out of His kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity; and shall cast them into a furnace of fire, there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth“. I believe it will be helpful if we look at just a few more verses that tell of being cast out of the kingdom where there shall be “wailing and gnashing of teeth”.

Matt. 22:13 records the end of the parable of the wedding banquet, “Tie him hand and foot, and throw him outside, into the darkness, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.  For many are invited, but few are chosen”.

Matt. 24:36-51 is about the return of Christ.  Our Lord, in this passage, is teaching the same lesson as He does in the parable of the ten virgins, i.e. if one is not prepared for the coming of the Lord he will be assigned “a place with the hypocrites, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth“.

In Matt. 25:30 we learn from the parable of the talents that the worthless servant will be thrown”into the darkness, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth“.

It makes no sense to suggest that those who will be cast out where there will be “weeping and gnashing of teeth” will then be sprinkled with clean water. I believe logic dictates that those who are not allowed entrance into the land will not be sprinkled with clean water, and will not be partakers of the blessings of the new covenant

The passages in Ezekiel quoted above tell us that those already in the land will come under the blessings of the spirit of the new covenant. Therefore, we may conclude that the spirit of Ezek. 11 and 36, i.e. the spirit of the new covenant, is not that spirit which allows one entrance into the kingdom, it is the spirit given those who are already in the land so that they may obey God’s law from the heart.

In Jn. 3 we have learned that one is born from above through the Spirit. The spirit of Ezek. 11 and 36 is not the spirit of the birth of a nation, it is the spirit of the new covenant. And the spirit of the new covenant is given to those already in the land and therefore has nothing to do with entrance into the kingdom of God. Therefore, we must conclude that the birth from above in Jn. 3 has nothing to with the birth of the nation.

IS IT THE INDIVIDUAL OR IS IT THE NATION OF ISRAEL WHICH WILL BE BORN AGAIN ?

In the section above we discussed the arguments put forth which suggest to some that being born from above (Jn. 3) refers to the birth of the nation of Israel. In this section we will discuss the thought that being born again mentioned in I Peter 1:3 and 23 refers to the nation of Israel, as opposed to individuals.

Is. 66:7-9 clearly points to the birth of the nation of Israel. “Before she travailed, she brought forth; before her pain came, she was delivered of a man child. Who hath heard such a thing? who hath seen such things? shall the earth be made to bring forth in one day? shall a nation be born at once? for as soon as Zion travailed, she brought forth her children, ‘shall I bring to the birth and not cause to bring forth’, saith the Lord; ‘shall I cause to bring forth and shut the womb?’ saith thy God”.

As discussed in the first section of this paper, I believe the context of I Peter chapter one points to resurrection where Peter wrote of being born again. Let me quote verse 3 once again, “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, Which according to His abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ, from the dead”. Note verse 5, “Who are kept by the power of God ….unto salvation…..”. Individuals are saved, not nations. Verse 6, “Wherein ye greatly rejoice, though for a season, if need be, ye are in heaviness…..”. Verse 7, “that the trial of your faith”. Faith is tried in individuals, a nation’s faith is not tried.

Rev. 12:3-4 also tells us of Israel’s birth as a nation. “And she being with child cried, travailing in birth, and pained to be delivered”. In verse 4b we read, “And the dragon stood before the woman which was ready to be delivered, for to devour her child as soon as it was born”. There is no mention of the Spirit being part of this birth. That is to say, there is nothing in the birth of Israel as a nation being born of the Spirit. Spirit certainly plays a part in the resurrection of Israel as told in Ezek. 37. But there is nothing about the Spirit in any of the passages having to do with Israel’s birth as a nation.

But let us continue the discussion of Israel’s birth as spoken of in Is. 66:7-9. As we learned in the first section of this paper, individuals are “born again“ in resurrection. Ezek. 37 speaks of the resurrection of Israel. Mr. Welch includes this passage in the Old Testament prophecies about which Nicodemus should have known in reference to Israel being born as a nation. Will the nation of Israel be born again in resurrection? In so far as Peter used the phrase “born again” of resurrection of the individual, I believe that it is not Scripturally accurate to say that Israel, as a nation, will be born again in resurrection. Is this splitting hairs? I believe not, let me explain.

We read in Ezek. 37 of the resurrection of Israel. But “they are not all Israel that are of Israel”. In other words, depending on the context, some of the natural seed of Jacob are not counted as Israel. And Ezek. 37 is one of those contexts where only believing Israel is counted as Israel. How do we know that? We read in Ezek. 37:25, “And they shall dwell in the land that I have given unto Jacob…….”. In other words, those who will be raised from their graves will live in the Land of Israel. But as has been proved from scriptures quoted above, the unbelievers of Jacob’s seed will not be allowed entrance into the Land. Because those who are raised will be in the land, we must conclude that it is not the entire nation of Israel, but only believers of Israel will be raised.

Because Peter refers to resurrection, and not all of the nation of Israel will be raised, I believe that I Peter 1 refers to individuals being born again in resurrection, not the nation of Israel. Also, as mentioned above, there is nothing in the scriptures that speaks of the Spirit being involved in any of the passages that speak of the birth of Israel as a nation.

For those reasons I believe that neither being born from above or being born again has anything to do with the birth of Israel as a nation.

CONCLUSION

In my opinion, one who is born from above is comparable to the wind in that just as the wind is heard but not understood, so too the man who is born from above is seen in the world, but not understood by the world.

I disagree with arguments put forth that say that Christ was speaking of the nation of Israel that would be born from above. One of those arguments is that Nicodemus represented the nation of Israel and Christ addressed him as such. But there is no Scriptural evidence to suggest that Nicodemus came as a representative of his nation. In fact, in my opinion, the very fact that he came at night suggests that he came on his own behalf and didn’t want the other leaders of Israel to know about it.

Another argument is that Christ was surprised that Nicodemus didn’t know what He had been telling him because the birth of the nation was a matter of Old Testament prophecy. But, as I have tried to show, Christ’s main theme in His discussion with Nicodemus was not about the birth of a nation, it was about the birth from above which allowed individuals entrance into the kingdom of God. It was that entrance into the kingdom of God about which Nicodemus was ignorant or unbelieving.

Further, the birth of the nation is never spoken of in terms of being born of the Spirit or is it spoken of in terms of being born again.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to comment please feel free to e-mail me at: [email protected]

August 8, 2022/ Religion

IS THE DISPENSATIONAL BOUNDARY ACTS 28:28 OR 28:25? – Right Word Truth

maximios /

One might ask, “Is it really that important which verse one sees as the dispensational boundary?” I believe the answer to that question is a resounding “yes”. The reason it is important is because if we don’t have the correct premise, i.e. the correct act of God that resulted in a new dispensation, we cannot hope to have the right boundary. By setting the boundary at Acts 28:28 we have determined that it was the preaching to the Gentiles that resulted in the new dispensation. If the dispensation changed because the gospel was sent to the Gentiles, we must conclude that it changed when Peter preached to the Gentiles as recorded in Acts 10 or when Paul went to the Gentiles in the mid-Acts period. But if the dispensation changed because Israel was divorced, then we must conclude that the dispensation changed at Acts 28:25 when Israel was divorced

Let me put that in other terms. It is obvious (to me at least) that something happened at Acts 28 that resulted in a change from the previous dispensation to the dispensation of the mystery. In order to correctly determine when the dispensation changed we must first ask what happened that caused the change? We cannot hope to correctly determine when the dispensation changed until we first correctly determine what act of God resulted in the new dispensation.

Acts 28:28 tells us that the gospel will be sent to the Gentiles and that they will hear it. We read in Acts 28:28, “Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it”. Is that what led to a change in dispensations? I believe not. I believe that the gospel of salvation going to the Gentiles is the wrong premise for determining the dispensational boundary. I believe it was the divorcing of Israel that led the new dispensation.

It was the divorcing of Israel that led to a new calling. That is to say, in order for heaven to be the calling of the church, Israel with Her earthly calling must have been divorced first.

It was the divorcing of Israel that led to a new relationship between believers and Christ. That is to say, in order for the relationship of believer to Christ, dispensationally speaking, to be as body to Head, rather than subject to King, Israel must be divorced first.

If we set the boundary at verse 28 it sets the wrong premise. As mentioned above the key element in what led to a new dispensation was the divorcing of Israel. I suggest therefore, that the dispensation of the mystery was issued in when Israel was divorced, not when the message of salvation was sent to the Gentiles. If we don’t have the correct premise we cannot hope to have the right boundary.

THE THREE QUOTES OF ISAIAH, CHAPTER SIX

Let us first consider Acts 28:28 as the dispensational boundary. It has been widely written that the quote of Is. 6 in Acts 28:26-27 is the sign that Israel had been set aside, i.e. became “lo-ammi”, “not My People”.  Acts 28:26-27 is quoted from Is. 6:9-10. It is also quoted in Matthew 13:14-15 and John 12:40. Let us consider these passages in which Is. 6 is quoted.

In Matt. 13:10 we read the disciples’ question to Christ, “Why speakest Thou unto them in parables?” Our Lord answered them by telling them that it was given unto them to know the mysteries of the kingdom of Heaven, “but to them it is not given”. Why was it not given to “them” to understand the mysteries of the kingdom of Heaven? “Because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand”. And then Christ immediately quotes Is. 6:9-10. But the quote of Is. 6 did not mean that Israel had been set aside, it meant only that our Lord was stating that they would not understand the parables and therefore He would not reveal the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven to them.

In John 12:40, the next time Is. 6 is quoted, it is clear that it was quoted because, again Israel refused to believe. This time they refused to believe in the miraculous signs that proved that Christ was their Messiah. But here again, this quote did not result in Israel being put aside.

The third quote of Is. 6 is, of course, in Acts 28:26-27. Where is the evidence that unlike the previous two times it was quoted, the third time meant that Israel was being set aside as God’s chosen nation? I see no such evidence. In fact precedence demands that because the first two times did not result in God putting Israel aside, neither did the third time.

As stated above, it is clear that something happened at the end of the book of Acts that resulted in a change of dispensations. But I see no evidence to suggest that it was Paul’s quote of Is. 6 that led to the dispensation of the mystery. Now let us consider Acts 28:25 as the dispensational boundary

ACTS 28:25

When we speak of Israel being “lo-ammi” in the dispensation of the mystery we are alluding to Hosea’s prophecy which was fulfilled when Israel was taken captive by the Babylonians. More specifically, we are alluding to Hosea 1:9 where we read, “Then said God, ‘Call his name Lo-ammi; for ye are not My people, and I will not be your God’”. Hosea was told to name one of his children Lo-ammi as a prophecy of the impending period in which Israel would be carried away captive. What is equally important in this prophecy is Hosea 2:2, “Plead with your mother, plead; for she is not My wife, neither am I her husband.….”. My point is that when Israel became lo-ammi in the fulfillment of Hosea’s prophecy, She also became “not My wife”. The same is true, as we shall see below, of the present lo-ammi period. That is to say, Israel became “not My people” and “not My wife”.

We read in Acts 28:25, “And when they agreed not among themselves, they departed”. The Greek word translated “departed” is “apeluonto”, and is a derivative of “apoluo” which is often used of divorce. See for example Matt. 1:19, “was minded to put her away privily”. See also Matt. 5:31, “Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement”. And Matt. 5:32, “….shall marry her that is divorced.…”. The word is used of divorce sixteen times in the New Testament. I believe that we should at least consider the possibility that Acts 28:25 tells us that Israel was being divorced from Her Husband, Jehovah. There are three reasons for that consideration. 1) The quote of Is. 6 and the sending of the gospel to the Gentiles (verses 26-28), does not indicate that Israel had been set aside, as Is. 6 had been quoted twice before, and Paul had been preaching to the Gentiles since the mid-Acts period. 2) We know that in order for the nations to be “together bodies” (Gr. “sussoma”, incorrectly translated “same body in Eph. 3:6) in the dispensation of the mystery, (please see the paper that explains exactly what the mystery  was that had been hid in God for a complete consideration of the very important word “sussoma”) Israel would have to be set aside (divorced) as God’s nation (i.e. as His wife). 3) Israel was divorced in the Old Testament lo-ammi period, it is logical that She was also divorced in the New Testament lo-ammi period, i.e. in the dispensation of the mystery.

Some have objected that the Greek word translated “departed” cannot mean “divorced” because it is not in the passive voice. Let me explain that objection and then comment on it.

Let me use a different phrase in order to clarify the meaning of “passive voice”. If we said, “My feet are being washed”, that is an example of the passive voice”. And if we said, “I am washing my own feet”, that is an example of the middle voice”.  So in terms of Acts 28:25, if the word was used to indicate the passive voice it would mean that Israel was being divorced. If it was used to indicate the middle voice, it would mean that the men departed. The question is then, which voice did the Holy Spirit mean for us to understand?

In the case of Acts 28:25, the Greek word is the same for the passive as it is for the middle voice. Therefore, in terms of the Greek, apart from the context, “apeluonto” can mean either “they were being dismissed/divorced” (passive voice) or it can mean “they themselves departed” (middle voice). In point of fact, I believe that in Acts 28:25 “apeluonto” means both, departed and divorced. I believe the figure of speech “double meaning” is used in this verse. The Companion Bible gives the following definition to the figure of speech called, “Amphioblogia or Double meaning”. “A word or phrase susceptible of two interpretations, both absolutely true“.

It is clear that the men spoken of in Acts 28:25 did indeed depart. That is to say, there is no question that in one sense the word is to be understood in the middle voice. The question is: can it also be understood as the passive voice, that is to say, does this verse also tell us that Israel was divorced? The note on the word translated “departed” in the Companion Bible reads, “Lit. were being sent away. ….The imperfect suggests that the chief men (vs. 17) broke up the meeting and sent the rest away lest they should be convinced”. The phrase in this note “were sent away” suggests the passive voice. But Dr. Bullinger suggests that it is in the passive voice in order to indicate that the men were being sent away by their superiors. But were they being sent away or were they being divorced? In order to answer that question we must consider who were these men of verse 25? Verse 17 reads, “And it came to pass, that after three days Paul called the chief of the Jews together“. We are not told that there were “chief men” and lesser men, only that they were the “chief of the Jews”. Therefore, I believe there is no Scriptural evidence for the suggestion that the lesser men were being sent away by the chief of the Jews. Dr. Bullinger translates the word in the passive voice but as “were being sent away”.  I believe, however, that because there is no evidence that lesser men “were being sent away” by the “chief men”, the passive voice implies divorce, not being sent away.

We are now ready to consider the context of Acts 28:25 to see if it will help us to determine if indeed “apeluonto” can be understood in the passive voice (in which case it would mean “were being divorced”) in Acts 28:25, as well as the middle voice. We read in verse 29, “when he (Paul) had said these words, the Jews departed“. The Greek word translated “departed” in verse 29 is a different word than the one found in verse 25. The Greek word used in verse 29 is “aperdomai”. It is never used of divorce. So in verse 25 we have Luke writing that the Jews “apoluento” and in verse 29 we have Luke writing that the Jews “aperdomai”.

Now we must ask ourselves if Luke, through the Holy Spirit, was telling us the same thing two times, i.e. the Jews left. I believe that Luke was telling us two different things. I say that because the fact of these men leaving does not seem to warrant Luke writing it twice. It was profoundly significant that they disagreed (vs. 29b) but I don’t see the profundity in the fact that they left. I believe that in verse 25 Luke was telling us that Israel was being divorced and in verse 29 he was telling us that the Jews left.

Let us try to reconstruct the scene as it is recorded in Acts 28:24-29. In verse 24 we learn that some of the Jews believed Paul’s message and some did not. In verse 25 we learn that “they agreed not”. Then verse 25 tells us that something happened “after that Paul had spoken one word“. That “one word” is what was recorded in verses 26-28, the quote from Isaiah, chapter six and verse 28, “be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they will hear it”. Then we read again that “when he had said these words, the Jews departed”. In other words, after Paul had quoted Is. 6 and told them that salvation would be sent to the Gentiles, we read that “they departed”. (Bear in mind that when they departed as recorded in verse 29, that is not the word used of divorce.)

So we read in verse 29 that the Jews departed after Paul’s last word to them. And what do we read in verse 25? Do we read again that they departed after Paul’s last word to them? Or do we read that they were divorced after Paul’s last word to them? Given that the Holy Spirit uses two very different words translated “departed”, and that one of those words is from the same root as is used of a divorce, and that Israel certainly was divorced in order for nations to be together bodies, I believe that Israel was divorced at Acts 28:25. If that is true, then the dispensational boundary is Acts 28:25, not Acts 28:28.

Is there any evidence that “apeluonto”can not be understood in the passive voice in Acts 28:25? There is this to consider. “Apoluo” does not mean “divorcement” outside of the direct context of the marriage relationship in any other passage. But Israel was indeed in a marriage relationship with God as is made clear throughout the Old Testament. In my opinion, just because Israel is not mentioned as Jehovah’s wife in the context does not negate the fact that Israel was indeed Jehovah’s wife, then being divorced.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to respond to my thoughts please e-mail me at: [email protected]

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August 8, 2022/ Religion

“REPENT” IS NOT A MESSAGE OF SALVATION – Right Word Truth

maximios /

“REPENT” IS NOT THE MESSAGE OF SALVATION

John 3:16 reads, “For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him shall not perish but have eternal life”. In this passage we read that belief in Christ was the only requirement of salvation. In Acts 2:38 we read, “Peter replied, repent and be baptized everyone of you, in the name of Jesus Christ so that your sins may be forgiven”. Is Acts 2:38 a different message of salvation? I believe not, I believe that John 3:16 explains the gospel of individual salvation in every dispensation and the passages about repentance have to do with earthly blessings or punishments.  In the New Testament repentance and baptism served to identify a believer as a servant of God (please see the paper on baptism for the Scriptural evidence of that statement), but was not part of God’s plan of salvation, per se..  We shall consider those passages as we look at each occurrence of where man is called upon to repent.

As we begin to study the passages having to do with repentance we must keep in mind that Israel had a conditional covenant relationship with God. We read in Leviticus chapter 26 that if Israel obeyed God’s Law they would be blessed with earthly blessings, but if they disobeyed God’s Law they would be punished with earthly punishments.

We know that Old Testament believers were saved by grace through faith. For the Scriptural evidence of that statement please see the paper Faith And Works In God’s Plan Of Salvation.) The Old Testament  is however more a history of God’s people, Israel, and Her relationship, past and future, with Her God, than it is about individual salvation unto eternal life. Even though Old Testament believers were saved by grace through faith, the Old Testament does not center primarily on salvation, it centers rather, on a nation’s walk with God.

Now let us look at the times in the Bible where man is called upon to repent. I believe that as we do that, it will become increasingly obvious that repentance has to do with temporal blessings or punishments and completing one’s faith.

THE CALL TO REPENTANCE IN THE OLD TESTAMENT

Jer. 18:11-12 reads, “Now therefore say to the people of Judah and those living in Jerusalem, this is what the Lord says, ‘Look! I am preparing a disaster for you and am devising a plan against you. So turn from (repent) your evil ways, each one of you and reform your actions. But they will reply, it’s no use. We will continue with our own plans; each of us will follow the stubbornness of his evil heart”. The punishment for their refusal to repent is given in verse 16; “Their land will be laid waste, an object of lasting scorn”. This passage shows the conditional covenant relationship that God had with Israel, i.e. when they obeyed, He would bless them but when they disobeyed, He would punish them.

Jer. 26:2-6 reads, “This is what the Lord says, ‘Stand in the courtyard of the Lord’s house and speak to the people of the towns of Judah’…. . Perhaps they will listen and each will turn (repent) from his evil way. Then I will relent and not bring on them the disaster I was planning…. .” This passage is very much like Jeremiah 18 and, once again, we are told what the call to repent meant to Old Testament Israel.

Ezek. 14:6 reads, “Therefore say to the house of Israel, This is what the sovereign Lord says, ‘Repent!  (repent)  Turn from your idols and renounce all your detestable practices”. In this passage, the consequence of not repenting is explained in verse 8, “I will set My face against that man.. I will make him a byword. I will cut him off from My people”. To be cut off from Israel as a result of disobeying God’s Law is a concept that is often spoken of in the Old Testament. For example Gen. 17:14 reads, “Any uncircumcised male will be cut off from among his people; he has broken My covenant”. Note also Ex. 12:15, “…. Whoever eats anything with yeast in it…must be cut off from Israel“. The phrase “cut off” can mean put to death as in Gen. 9:11, “Never again will all life be cut off by the waters of a flood…”. But it often means to be separated from Israel. Note for example Numbers 15:31, “…that person must be cut off; his guilt remains on him”.  Obviously, if one’s guilt remains on him, he is alive.  When an Old Testament Israelite was cut off from his nation, it meant that he will not inherit the earthly blessings promised to God’s people. Ps. 37:9 shows the same idea. It reads, “For evil men will be cut off, but those who hope in the Lord will inherit the land.” It does not mean the loss of eternal salvation.  It does mean the loss of earthly blessings that will come to Israel during the millennial reign of Christ.

Ezek. 18:27, “…if a wicked man turns away (repents) from the wickedness he has committed and does what is just and right, he will save his life”. The context of this verse will show that it is not eternal life that is spoken of here, but one’s temporal life. Note for example verse 13, “…. Will such a man live? He will not…he will surely be put to death”. Also verse 17-18, “…He will not die for his father’s sins; he will surely live. But his father will die for his own sin”. Verse 20, “For the soul who sins, he will be put to death”.

Joel 2:13-14, “Return  (repent)  to the Lord your God, for He is gracious and compassionate…and He repents from sending calamity. Who knows that He may turn and have pity and leave behind a blessing, grain offerings and drink offerings for the Lord your God”. Again, this passage speaks not of eternal life but of earthly blessings for those who repent.

THE CALL TO REPENTANCE IN THE NEW TESTAMENT

It is clear that the exhortation to repent in the Old Testament had to do with earthly punishments and/or blessings. We will now examine the New Testament calls for repentance, bearing in mind that the New Testament did not come out of a vacuum. So when we study repentance in the New Testament, we must understand it as the hearers of the message would have understood it.

Because we have in the Word of God the expressed reason that Israel was called upon to repent in the New Testament I think it best if we allow that inspired reason to speak for itself. That reason is found in Acts 3:19.

Acts 3:19, “Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord”. The note in the Companion Bible on the word translated “when” in the phrase “when the times of refreshing shall come” reads, “when=in order that. Gr. hopos. Occurs 15 times in Acts and always expresses a purpose“. So this verse should read, “Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, in order that the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord”. We have in this verse the divinely expressed reason that Israel was called upon to repent. It was “in order that” the times of refreshing (the millennial reign of Christ) shall come.

This is perfectly consistent with the reasons Israel was called upon to repent in the Old Testament. As we have seen in the sections above, Israel had been called to repentance in the Old Testament in order to avoid punishment or to lay hold of a blessing. In the New Testament the message of John the Baptist, of Christ, of Peter and of the apostles, whenever Israel was called upon to repent, was in order that Christ would return and set up His millennial reign which , when established will be the greatest time of earthly blessings. Again, repentance and baptism served to identify a believer as a servant of God (please see the paper on baptism for the Scriptural evidence of that statement) but was not part of God’s plan of salvation, per se.

Matt. 3:1, “In those days John the Baptist came preaching in the desert of Judah saying, ‘Repent for the kingdom of Heaven is near’”. The “kingdom of Heaven” is Christ’s rule of Israel in His millennial reign. (For the Scriptural evidence of that statement, please see the paper on this web-site The Kingdom of Heaven.) John the Baptist preached repentance so that the kingdom of Heaven would be established. This is perfectly consistent with the inspired reason for repentance given in Acts 3:19, quoted above. And it is also completely consistent with the calls to repentance in the Old Testament. Just as in the Old Testament when Israel was called upon to repent either to avoid a punishment or to lay hold of a blessing, so too here, if Israel had repented they would have enjoyed all the blessings associated with the millennium. It should be noted once again that  repentance and baptism served to identify a believer as a servant of God (please see the paper on baptism for the Scriptural evidence of that statement) but was not part of God’s plan of salvation, per se.

Matt. 4:17, “From that time on Jesus began to preach, ‘Repent for the kingdom of heaven is near’”. See note above on Matt. 3:1.

Matt. 11:20-21, “Then Jesus began to denounce the cities in which most of His miracles had been performed, because they did not repent. Woe to you Korazin, Woe to you Bethsaida! If the miracles that had been performed in you had been performed in Tyre and Siddon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes”. Note that it is cities that are called on to repent. Eternal salvation is never offered to cities but to individuals.

Matt. 12:41, “The men of Nineveh will stand up at the judgment with this generation and condemn it, for they repented at the preaching of Jonah”. Let us look at the message of Jonah to Nineveh and learn what they repented of and what was their reward for their repentance. In Jonah 1:2 God tells Jonah to “Go to the great city of Nineveh and preach against it because its wickedness has come up before me”. In Jonah 3:4 we read that Jonah was proclaiming to Nineveh, “Forty more days and Nineveh will be destroyed“. In verse 10 of chapter 3 we see that “When God saw what they did and how they turned (repented) from their evil ways, He had compassion and did not bring upon them the destruction He had threatened”. We see that Nineveh repented to avoid the destruction of their city, this has nothing to do with eternal salvation.

Mark 1:4, “John did baptize …and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins“. See notes on Acts 3:19 and Matt. 3:1 above.

Luke 3:3, He (John the Baptist) went into all the country around the Jordan preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins”. See notes on Acts 3:19 and Matt. 3:1 above.

Luke 3:8 “Produce fruit in keeping with repentance”. This passage is about the ministry of John the Baptist. His ministry was two fold. 1) John was to announce the coming of Christ, which clearly this passage is not about. 2) John was to call Israel to repent “in order that” Christ would set up His millennial reign. I believe that we may conclude that it was the second reason that John called upon Israelites to repent in this passage.

Luke 5:32, “I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance”. Many people take this to be the gospel of salvation, but I believe that a closer look at the context will show otherwise. Verse 32 comes as an answer to the objections of the Pharisees, “Why do you eat and drink with tax collectors and sinners?” If one takes this passage to be about salvation, we are left to conclude by the question and our Lord’s answer that tax collectors and sinners are more in need of salvation than are others. But tax collectors and sinners are in no worse a position than any other person in terms of salvation “for all have sinned and come short of the glory of God”. If disobedience to God’s Law were the issue (which I believe it was) then they would have been in a worse position, as those two groups were notorious for their disobedience to God’s Law. I believe that the repentance that our Lord preached was for the same purpose as was John the Baptist’s call for repentance. That is to say, if Israel had repented the millennial reign would have been established.

Luke 10:13. See notes on Acts 3:19 and Matt. 3:1 above.

Luke 11:32. See notes on Acts 3:19 and Matt. 3:1 above.

Luke 13:3, “Do you think that these Galileans were worse sinners than all the other Galileans because they suffered this way? I tell you no! But unless you repent, you too will all perish” The context will show that “perish” refers to this temporal life, not to eternal life. In verse two Jesus was told about some Galileans whose blood Pilate had mixed with their sacrifices; and in verse 4 Christ tells of the 18 who died when a tower fell on them. He was talking about the end of temporal life; eternal salvation was not what was being discussed.

Luke 15:7, “I tell you that there is more rejoicing in heaven over one sinner who repents than over 99 righteous persons who do not need to repent”.  The point of this parable centers on the value of each person. Because that is the case we do not read of the faith required for righteousness.  That is to say, this parable is not about the gospel of salvation, therefore, n my opinion, it does not  impact  the point of this study.

Luke 16:30. The rich man said, “No father Abraham, but if someone goes to them, they will repent”. We read in the next verse, “And He said unto him, ‘If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead’”. It is clear from this verse that belief (i.e. “be persuaded”) was the message of this discussion.   In other words, just as in Acts 3,  repentance was the sign of their belief in Christ.

Luke 24:47, “Repentance and forgiveness will be preached in His name”. Please see the notes on Acts 3:19 and Matt. 3:1 above.

Acts 2:38, “Peter replied, ‘Repent and be baptized every one of you so that your sins will be forgiven. Please see the notes on Acts 3:19 and Matt. 3:1 above.

Acts 5:31, “Him hath God exalted with His right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins”.  The Greek word translated “repentance” in this verse is “metanoia”. I believe the definition as given in the Companion Bible will be helpful. “A real change of mind and attitude toward sin itself, and the  cause of it (not merely the consequences of it), which effects the whole life and not merely  a single act. It has been defined as a change in  our principle of action from what is by nature the exact opposite…..”. This definition explains why Peter said that Christ gives repentance. That is to say, repentance, as is forgiveness, is an act of God.  Obviously, this repentance and forgiveness is given to believers only.

Act 8:22, “Repent of this wickedness and pray to the Lord. Perhaps He will forgive you for having such a thought in your heart”. This is not a message of salvation. This man had a wicked thought and he is told that he needs to ask God’s forgiveness for that thought. Salvation is not being saved from what we think or do; it is being saved from death which comes as a result of being children of Adam.

In Acts 11 we read of Peter’s account of his experience with Cornelius in Acts 10. We read in Acts 11:18, “…So then God has even granted the Gentiles repentance unto life“. There are two important aspects to this passage that can not be overlooked if we are to understand it correctly. 1) Peter’s message was to the Gentiles and was given for a different reason than was his call to Israel to repent. The Gentiles’ repentance had no relation to the return of Christ except to provoke Israel to jealousy (see Rom. 11:14). Note also, Peter expressly states that it was a repentance unto life, i.e. resurrection life. 2) Peter’s message given to the Gentiles in chapter 10 was to believe. We read in verse 43 Peter’s statement that, “everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins through His Name”. Note also that when Peter is describing this scene to those in Jerusalem, he says in verse 17, “So if God gave them the same gift He gave us who believed in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I to think that I could oppose God.” Peter’s message to the Gentiles was that they should believe. When giving an account of his experience, Peter explained that believers received forgiveness of sins. As in Heb. 11 where those saints were reckoned as righteous because they believed the message that God had for them and acted upon that belief, so too the Gentiles to whom Peter preached also were reckoned as righteous when they believed Peter’s message and acted upon it by being baptized.

Acts 17:30-31, In this passage Paul is addressing “Men of Athens” (vs. 22). In verse 29 Paul speaks to them about the idol worship of which they have been guilty. And in verses 30 and 31 Paul  says, “In the past God overlooked such ignorance, but now He commands all people everywhere to repent”. Just as in Acts  3 and 11 where we saw that it was believing (faith) in Christ  by which those Gentiles were saved, so too in this passage. This passage does not make that point as clearly as was made in Acts 11 and Peter’s discussion of it in Acts 15, but we do read in Acts 17:34 , “Certain men clave unto him and believed“. I believe the implication is that Paul’s purpose in asking them to repent of their idol worship was to demonstrate their belief  in his message. But it is not repentance in itself  that leads to salvation, it is belief/faith, “by faith ye are saved.…” (Eph. 2:8).

Acts 19:4, “John’s baptism was a baptism of repentance. He told the people to believe in the One coming after him”. I believe that Paul is saying here that John’s baptism unto repentance followed one’s belief in Christ because it is faith/belief that saves.

Acts 20:21, “I have declared to both Jews and Greeks that they must turn to God in repentance and have faith in our Lord Jesus”. As noted in Acts 19:4 Paul is saying that baptism unto repentance  followed one’s  belief in Christ.

Acts 26:20. “But shewed first unto them of Damascus……that they should repent and turn to God, and do works meet for repentance”.  I believe that we may logically assume that those who repented believed first.  That is to say, they would not have turned to God had they not first believed Paul’s message concerning Christ.

Rom. 2:4, “God’s kindness leads you towards repentance”. Rom. 1:7 tells us that Romans was written to believers, “To all in Rome who are loved by God and called to be saints”. The context will show that the repentance of 2:4 refers to repenting from judging others. Obviously, the gospel of salvation does not include judging or not judging  others .

II Cor. 7:9-10, “yet now I am happy, not because you were made sorry, but because your sorrow led you to repentance…. Godly sorrow brings repentance”. Again, this is not a repentance unto salvation, but a repentance from doing what it was that Paul had written to them earlier about.

II Cor. 12:21, “I am afraid that when I come again my God will humble me before you, and I will be grieved over many who have sinned earlier and have not repented of the impurity”. Again, this is the repentance from a sin of a believer, not a repentance unto salvation.

II Tim. 2:25, “…God will grant him repentance leading him to the knowledge of the truth”. This repentance is from one who is a believer and will not accept instruction. This repentance again has nothing to do with salvation.

Heb. 6:4-6, “For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost, and have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come, if they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance; seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh, and put Him to an open shame”.

This passage is often quoted to prove that one can lose their salvation. As the paper on that subject will prove, this passage has nothing to do with salvation, it has to do with the heavenly gift, which as the above mentioned paper will prove, is power from the Holy Spirit. It would take us too far off the topic of this paper to discuss that passage here, but if interested, may I suggest the reader consult that passage as it is discussed in the paper on eternal salvation.

There are eleven occurrences of “repent” in Revelation. In my opinion, each of them is an exhortation to Israel to repent of their sins or they will suffer the consequences of the tribulation. At no time in Revelation are these verses in regard to eternal salvation. To go through each verse would take us beyond the scope of this paper, which I fear is long enough already. Also because there are so many interpretations of Revelation, I fear that a study of these verses would lead us far from our topic. So I will list the verses in which “repent” occurs in Revelation and allow the reader to examine those passages. They are: Rev. 2:5 (2) 2:16, 2:21, 2:22, 3;3. 3:19, 9:20; 9:21, 16:9, 16:11..

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. I would love to hear your thoughts. Please E-mail me at:[email protected]

August 8, 2022/ Religion

ARE THERE TWO CALLINGS IN THE DISPENSATION OF THE MYSTERY? – Right Word Truth

maximios /

Many in the Acts 28 community believe that some believers of the dispensation of the mystery are not members of the church which is His body, which, because the church is called to heavenly places,  leads them to the conclusion that there are two callings in the dispensation of the mystery.  One calling is to heavenly places and, in the view of some who hold to two callings in the dispensation of the mystery, others to the new Jerusalem. I believe that all believers of the dispensation of the mystery are members of the church which is His body, and that there is only one calling for believers of the dispensation of the mystery, i.e. to heavenly places.  This paper is an attempt to explain the reasons for that belief.

Those who believe in two callings do not all hold to the same views on each detail of the issue.  This is, of course, to be expected, as a question as complex as this one will not be agreed upon in every particular by all who hold to the basic premise.  But if I do not present a particular view it is only because I am trying to present what I think is the majority opinion.  If the reader would like an answer to an issue not expressed in this paper, I encourage him/her to let me know of that issue via the e-mail address given at the end of this paper.

There are several questions that I will address in our search for the truth about two callings in the dispensation of the mystery.  They are:

Who are those invited to the wedding feast of Matthew 22:9-10? Was Hebrews written after Acts 28? To whom was Ephesians written?

Is there precedence in another dispensation for two callings in the dispensation of the mystery?

MATTHEW 22: THE PARABLE OF THE WEDDING BANQUET

The parable of the wedding feast is told in Matthew 22:1-14 and reads, 1) “Jesus spoke to them again in parables, saying: 2)‘The kingdom of heaven is like a king who prepared a wedding banquet for his son. 3) He sent his servants to those who had been invited to the banquet to tell them to come, but they refused.  4) Then he sent some more servants and said, ‘Tell those who have been invited that I have prepared my dinner.  My oxen and fattened cattle have been butchered, and everything is ready.  Come to the wedding banquet’.  5) But they paid no attention and went off-one to his field another to his business.  6) The rest seized his servants, mistreated them and killed them. 7) The king was enraged.  He sent his army and destroyed those murderers and burned their city.  8) Then he said to his servants, The wedding banquet is ready, but those I invited did not deserve to come.  9) Go to the street corners and invite to the banquet anyone you find.  10) So the servants went out into the streets and gathered all the people they could find, both good and bad, and the wedding hall was filled with guests. 11) And when the king came in to see the guests, he saw there a man which had not on a wedding garment; 12) And he saith unto him, ‘Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment?’ And he was speechless. 13) Then said the king to the servants, ‘Bind him hand and foot, and take him away, and cast him into outer darkness; there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth’. 14) For many are called, but few are chosen”.

(A note to the reader: I realize that most interpret this parable to say that God (represented by the king in this parable) sent His armies to destroy Jerusalem, and that was accomplished at 70 AD by the Roman army. But we read in Ezek. 5:9, “And I will do in thee that which I have not done, and whereunto I will not do any more the like.…..”. This verse tells us that after the destruction by the Babylonians led by Nebuchadnezzar, God will not destroy Jerusalem again. Unless one is willing to say that God broke that promise one must conclude that God did not send His armies in 70 AD to destroy Jerusalem. I point this out so that the reader may come to this parable with an open mind as to its interpretation.)

Those who believe in two callings point to verses 9 and 10 where the servants are sent out to the “street corners” to find guests for the wedding banquet.  They believe that those guests found at the “street corners” are those who live in the dispensation of the mystery, but are not members of the church which is His body. This is a crucial part of the argument in favor of two callings, as verses 9-10 are the only scriptures that ostensibly allude to the supposed group of the dispensation of the mystery who are not members of the church which is His body.

Let us assume for the moment that the parable of the wedding feast is about the Gentiles of the dispensation of the mystery who are not members of the church which is His body. Who are those that are called and who are those that are chosen in the context of this parable? Obviously there is a contrast, but a contrast between whom? The principle of right division does not allow for either the called or the chosen to be those of the church which is His body because the parable is about the kingdom of heaven, i.e. “the kingdom of Heaven is like”. That is to say, the dispensation of the mystery  has nothing to do with the kingdom of Heaven. I believe that a study of this parable will show that it has nothing at all to do with anyone who lives in the dispensation of the mystery.

There are two questions which must be asked in regard to the parable of Matt. 22. One is when will the king of Matt. 22:7 send “forth his armies” and destroy “those murderers” and burn their city? And the other question is, to what city does this parable refer when it speaks of destruction?

Let us first consider the question of when the king will “send forth his armies” We read in Joel 2:11, “And the Lord shall utter His voice before His army: for His camp is very great: for He is strong that executeth His word: for the day of the Lord is great and very terrible…..”. Note this verse speaks of “His army”, i.e. God’s army. Compare that to Matt. 22:7b, “the king sent forth his armies“. Note also that “His armies” will march in the day of the Lord. So we have “his armies” of Matt. 22 being God’s armies of Joel 2. By comparing Scripture with Scripture we have answered our first question, i.e. when will His army march? His army will march in the day of the Lord.

Bearing in mind that Ezek. 5:9, quoted above,  is a record of God’s promise to never again  destroy Jerusalem after the Babylonian destruction let us consider what city will be destroyed. II Kings 5:17-19, Jer. 46:10, Ezek. 13:5 and Joel 1:15 are scriptures which speak of destruction from God in the day of the Lord. Rev. 18 speaks of the destruction of Babylon. By comparing Scripture with Scripture we may conclude that Babylon is the city that will be destroyed by the “kings armies” of Matt. 22.

Rev. 18:2 reads, “Babylon the great is fallen…..”. And in verse 8 of that chapter we read, “….she shall be utterly burned with fire: for strong is the Lord God who judgeth her”. Rev. 18:20 is also helpful, “Rejoice over her, thou heaven and ye holy apostles and prophets, for God hath avenged you on her“. Isn’t that what the king will send his army to do, i.e. to avenge the murders of those who were sent to call the guests to the wedding? Verse 24 reiterates, “and in her (Babylon) was found the blood of prophets and of saints, and of all that were slain upon the earth”. Also Rev. 19: 2, “….for He hath……..avenged the blood of His servants at her hand”. Rev. 19:7 even connects the destruction of Babylon with the wedding parable of Matt. 22, “Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honor to Him; for the marriage of the Lamb is come…..”.

Who are those who are bidden? The children of the kingdom are Israelites, (see Matt. 8:12) they are the ones that have been bidden. But who are those at the street corners who are bidden? We are not specifically told, but we must take our answer from Scripture. Going to the street corners is an event that is connected to the marriage feast and therefore to the second coming of Christ, the Bridegroom. If we consider the events connected to the second coming of Christ we will have the answer to our question, who are those bidden from the street corners?

One of the events connected with the return of Christ, when His wedding feast will be ready, is the gathering of Israel. The gathering of Israel is prophesied several times in the Old Testament, but let us consider Ezek. 20:34, “I will bring you out from the people, and will gather you out of the countries wherein ye are scattered”. Note Israel will be gathered from the nations. I believe it is the nations that the parable refers to as the “street corners” to which the servants of Matt. 22:9-10 will be sent. That these servants were sent to the nations to gather Israel is in keeping with the fact that the parable is one of those that teach of the kingdom of Heaven. The kingdom of Heaven is Christ’s rule of Israel in the millennium. (For the Scriptural evidence of that statement please see the paper on this web-site The Kingdom of Heaven.) It is also in keeping with the fact that Matthew is the most Israel centered of the four Gospels and the parable of the wedding feast is recorded only in Matthew’s Gospel.

But some of the guests were found unworthy to attend the wedding. This is also in keeping with the prophecy of the gathering of Israel from the nations. Ezek.20:38 reads, “And I will purge out from among you the rebels, and them that transgress against Me……they shall not enter into the land of Israel…..”. As the above mentioned paper on the kingdom of Heaven will show, there will be “weeping and gnashing of teeth” outside the land of Israel in the millennial reign. This is where we are told the unworthy guests will be cast (see Matt. 22:13).

Note the word “for” in verse 14 of Matt. 22. That tells us that this parable (as is true of all parables) has a main point. That point is, “For many are called, but few are chosen”. Who is meant by “the many that are called” and “the few that are chosen”. If we are to answer that question from the context, (as I believe we should) we must conclude that in this parable and in this context, the gathered of Israel from all the nations (in the words of the parable, from the “street corners”) to which they had been scattered are the many that are called. And the righteous of that group, who will be allowed entrance into the kingdom of Heaven are the few that are chosen.

In his note in the Companion Bible on the phrase “many are called but few are chosen”, Dr. Bullinger suggests we see Matt. 20:16 and 25:30. But the same phrase is used in several parables and does not always refer to the same two groups. We must consider the context of each occurrence. Matt. 20:16 comes at the end of the parable of the hired laborers. Consider that the parable comes as an answer to Peter’s question, “we have forsaken all, and followed Thee; what shall we have therefore?” (Matt. 19:27). I believe that we may conclude that in this parable and in this context the many who are called are Israel, and the few that are chosen are the twelve disciples.

The point of the parable of Matt. 25:14-30 is that those who showed by their life that they respected the knowledge they had of their Lord’s return, were allowed entrance into the kingdom of Heaven. Those who did not, were not allowed entrance into the kingdom of Heaven. (It would take us too far off track to give the reasons for this conclusion. May I suggest the reader see the paper on this web-site A Study Of How To Interpret The Parables Of Jesus Christ.) The point is however, that this phrase does not refer to the same two groups in every parable. The groups to which they do refer must be taken from the parable itself.

Mr. Welch, in his book Parable, Miracle And Sign expresses his view that the “few” are those in the “highways” (i.e. “street corners in the NIV). He wrote the following of those “few”. “In the parable before us, those who finally are gathered together, who are found in the highways, are ‘bad and good’; worthiness is no longer spoken of. These seem to be the elect, who are gathered together by the angels from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.”. Mr. Welch goes on to say in the same paragraph that these are compelled to come. I suggest we look at Matt. 13 which also speaks of the gathering by the angels.

We read in Matt. 13:37-43 our Lord’s explanation of the parable of the tares. Verses 41-42 read, “The Son of man shall send forth His angels, and they shall gather out of His kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity. And shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth”. We learn from this passage that some of those gathered by the angels are not fit to live in the kingdom of Heaven, they will be cast out. But a believer, a child of God cannot be unworthy of the kingdom of Heaven. Furthermore, Mr.Welch himself wrote that “these (the few) seem to be the elect”. If they were the elect we cannot think that they were not worthy of the kingdom of Heaven.

To review the parable as a whole: I am suggesting that the destruction of the murderers and their city is the Lord’s destruction of Babylon which we are told is His revenge against those who killed the prophets. The servants of verses 9-10 will be sent to gather Israel from the countries to which they had been scattered. Those Israelites who had been bidden but were found unworthy, will be cast out of the land where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.

What I have suggested is quite different than the widely held view of Matthew 22 which is presented in the Companion Bible. Let us consider that view.

The notes in the Companion Bible on this parable describe, I believe, the thinking of most of those who believe in two callings in the present dispensation.  The notes state that 1) the servants of verse 3 were those of the gospel period and 2) that the servants of verses 4-6 were those of the Acts period.  3) The note on verse 7, states that the “armies” of that verse are the “Roman armies” of 70 AD. And 4) the phrase “burned up their city” refers to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. Let us consider these points briefly.

1) The servants of verse 3 were those of the gospel period, and 2) that the “other servants” of verses 4-6 were those of the Acts period. I will not dispute that even though I do not believe that there is enough Scriptural evidence to prove it.

3) The note on verse 7, states that the “armies” of that verse are the “Roman armies” of 70 AD. But there is no Scriptural account of the destruction of 70 AD. (Luke 22 is also said to speak of the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD, but the paper on this web-site When Will The Times Of The Gentiles Be Fulfilled? will prove from Scripture that Luke 22 is about the end times and does not speak of 70 AD.) Therefore, that interpretation has no Scriptural evidence and is based entirely on human records.

4) Does the phrase “burned up their city” refer to the destruction of Jerusalem by God in 70 AD? We read in Ezek. 5:9, “And I will do in thee that which I have not done, and whereunto I will not do any more the like, because of all thine abominations”. This verse refers to the destruction of Jerusalem by Nebuchadnezzar who God sent to destroy that city as a punishment for Israel’s sinful state. But here God promises to not destroy Jerusalem again. We must conclude therefore, that God represented by the king in this parable did not destroy the city in 70 AD. Furthermore, there is no Scriptural evidence that God, destroyed Jerusalem in 70 AD.

On the other hand there is much Scriptural evidence that God will destroy Babylon and for the express purpose as stated in the parable, i.e. to punish those who killed his servants.

We read in verse 7 that the king “sent forth his armies, and destroyed those murderers, and burned up their city”. To whom does the pronoun “their” refer? It refers to the city of the murderers. As discussed above, Rev. 18 does indeed give the Scriptural evidence that Babylon will be destroyed in the day of the Lord which is when God’s army will march, and that it will be destroyed for the specific reason given in the parable, i.e. to avenge the blood of God’s servants. I believe that in the day of the Lord Babylon will be a literal city and will be literally destroyed. But I also believe that Babylon represents all that is evil. Therefore, because the murderers spoken of in the parable are evil, in one sense Babylon can certainly thought of as “their city”, i.e. the city of evil doers.

If one interprets this parable as a prophecy of the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD we have the following difficulties.

1) This is a parable of the kingdom of Heaven. Gentiles of the dispensation of the mystery have no place in the kingdom of Heaven.

2) That interpretation is not based on the Word of God because the Word of God never speaks of the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD by the Roman army.

3) The parable has to do with the kingdom of Heaven, i.e. Christ’s reign of Israel in the millennium. It is estimated that the dispensation of the mystery began around 63 AD. Jerusalem was destroyed by the Romans in 70 AD. We can not have a prophecy concerning the kingdom of Heaven fulfilled in the dispensation of the mystery. To do so violates three time honored principles of Bible study, 1) consider the context, 2) interpret Scripture with Scripture and 3) “rightly dividing the Word of truth”.

4) Israel was lo-ammi in 70 AD. There are no Israel-centered prophecies being fulfilled in the dispensation of the mystery.

5) If the destruction of the city was the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD that would mean that the servants who went out to the “street corners” were sent out in the dispensation of the mystery. Again, we can not have prophecy found in a parable about the kingdom of Heaven fulfilled during the dispensation of the mystery. That goes against the principle of “rightly dividing the Word of truth”.

6) If those at the wedding feast were those of the dispensation of the mystery, we would have some believers being allowed into the kingdom of Heaven and some being cast out. Again, that goes against the very heart of the concept of “rightly dividing the Word of truth”.

Those who believe in two callings have only one scripture passage which, in their view, applies to those in the dispensation of the mystery who are not members of the church which is His body. That one passage is Matthew 22:7-14 where servants are sent to the highways to gather those who had been bidden to the wedding. As we have seen, that passage does not speak of Gentiles in the dispensation of the mystery, it speaks of  the gathering of Israel at His coming.   Therefore, there are no scriptures that speak of any Gentiles in the dispensation of the mystery who are not members of the church which is His body. They are never mentioned or alluded to. There is absolutely no Scriptural evidence that there is such a thing as believers of the dispensation of the mystery who are not members of the church which is His body.

WAS HEBREWS WRITTEN AFTER ACTS 28?

What is the significance of the dating of Hebrews in relation to the question of two callings?  Its significance lies in the fact that those who hold to the doctrine of two callings believe that some in the dispensation of the mystery are not called to heavenly places, but are instead, called to the New Jerusalem. They cite the fact that many who are named in Hebrews chapter 11 who were “looking for a better country” were Gentiles.  So if the New Jerusalem is the calling of some Gentiles, then, as the argument goes, the Gentiles of the dispensation of the mystery who are not called to heavenly places are called to the New Jerusalem.

If the New Jerusalem is to be the calling of some in the dispensation of the mystery, Hebrews must have been written after Acts 28.  Why?  Because no one knew of the dispensation of the mystery until it was revealed after the end of the Acts period. To say that the New Jerusalem was offered to a group that no one had knowledge of goes against the very heart of the doctrine of right division.

Let us go to Hebrews and see if we can’t determine from that book when it was written. If it was written during the Acts period, which I believe is the case, then it obviously has nothing to do with a calling in the dispensation of the mystery which, during the Acts period, was still a mystery hidden in God.

THE PROMISES STILL STAND

Heb. 4:1 reads, “Therefore, since the promise of entering his rest still stands, let us be careful that none of you be found to have fallen short of it”.  The NIV Interlinear Greek-English New Testament reads literally, “Let us fear therefore, lest being left a promise to enter into the rest of him, seems anyone of you to have come short”.

What is the “rest” that was promised?  We are told in 3:16-17, “Who were they who heard and rebelled?  Were they not all those Moses led out of Egypt?  And with whom was he angry for forty years?  Was it not with those who sinned, whose bodies fell in the desert?  And to whom did God swear that they would never enter his rest if not to those who disobeyed? ….” Those that fell in the desert were obviously those of Israel who left Egypt with Moses, but were not allowed entrance into the land God had promised to Abraham. Therefore, the  “rest” spoken of in Hebrews 4:1 was entrance into the promised land.

The writer of Hebrews is saying that the promise of this rest “still stands”.  Or as the KJV puts it, “a promise being left“. That tells us that the promise of “rest”, i.e. entrance into the land, was still standing at the time Hebrews was written.  That means, of course, that Israel had not been put aside. How do we know that? We know that because once Israel had been put aside at Acts 28 the promised rest (entrance into the land) was set aside with Her.  But since the writer of Hebrews writes that the promise did stand, obviously Israel had not been put aside at the writing of Hebrews.  Therefore, Hebrews was not written after, but during the Acts period.

It is also significant that the writer of Hebrews writes, “Let us….”.  And again, “any of you should seem to come short”.  If the writer of Hebrews wrote this epistle after Acts 28 he would have known that the generation to which he was writing was not looking for the same promise as were those who fell in the desert. Those that fell in the desert were looking for entrance into the land. After Acts 28, the promise of entrance into the land was put in abeyance and the promise of resurrection life in heavenly places took its place (Eph. 1:3). Again, this shows that Hebrews was written during the Acts period, not after.

THE OLD COVENANT READY TO VANISH AWAY

Let us consider another verse from Hebrews which points to it having been written during the Acts period.  We read in 8:13, “By calling this covenant ‘new’, he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear” (NIV).  The KJV has “”Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away”.

The Greek word translated “soon” in the NIV and “ready” in the KJV occurs 30 times in the New Testament.  In the KJV it is translated “nigh” or “near” 22 times, “at hand” 7 times and once “ready”.

This passage tells us that the disappearance of the old covenant is near.  If the disappearance is near then it had not yet disappeared; that is, it was still in effect at the time of the writing of Hebrews. The old covenant was given to Israel.  If Hebrews had been written after Acts 28, i.e. after Israel had been put aside as God’s chosen people, then the old covenant would have already been put aside with Her. That is to say, when Israel was put aside at Acts 28 all the promises and prophesies given Her were put in abeyance until God takes Israel back as His chosen nation.  Because the old covenant was still in effect, we must conclude that Hebrews was written before Israel was put aside at Acts 28.  Hebrews was written during the Acts period.

Let us consider another aspect of the old covenant in relation to when Hebrews was written.  The old covenant will disappear when the new covenant is put into effect. We are told that the new covenant will be put into effect in the millennial reign of Christ (see Ezek. 20:34-38).  By saying that the old covenant will “soon” be obsolete or is “ready to vanish” the writer is saying that the millennial reign, which will make the old covenant obsolete, is near.  If Hebrews were written after Acts 28 the writer could not have said that the millennial reign is near.  That is to say, if Hebrews was written after Acts 28, the millennial reign would have been in abeyance, along with all God’s plans and purposes concerning Israel.

THE DAY APPROACHING

Let us consider Heb. 10:25.  “Not forsaking the assembling of ourselves together, as the manner of some is; but exhorting one another: and so much the more, as ye see the day approaching“.  What day was approaching that they needed to exhort one another “so much the more”?  Let us consider the context.

Verse 27 is helpful.  “But a certain fearful looking for of judgment, and fiery indignation which shall devour the adversaries”.  What day is it that is one of judgment and fiery indignation, one which shall “devour the adversaries”?  Does this not sound like the great and dreadful day of the Lord? I believe that it is the day of the Lord to which the writer refers in verse 25.   If Hebrews was written after Acts 28, what day would the writer be referring to?  There is no mention in the prison epistles of a day that can be described as a day of “judgment and fiery indignation”, one which shall “devour the adversaries”.  Because there is no mention of such a day of “fiery indignation” in the prison epistles, I believe that we may conclude that that day is not one that we should exhort one another about in the dispensation of the mystery.  That fact makes the dating of Hebrews after Acts 28 highly unlikely.

Let’s say for the moment that it is the day of the Lord that these Hebrews needed to exhort each other about.  That would mean that the writer was expecting that day in the lifetime of those to whom he was writing.  That being the case, Hebrews could not have been written after Acts 28 when all prophesies concerning Israel were held in abeyance.

YET A LITTLE WHILE AND HE SHALL COME

10:37 is another verse that suggests that Hebrews was written during the Acts period.  “For yet a little while and He that shall come will come, and will not tarry.”  The note on the phrase “a little while” in the Companion Bible reads, “Gr. mikron hoson hoson =very, very little “.  If Hebrews had been written after Acts 28 the writer would have known that Christ would not come, as promised in this verse, in a little while. Therefore we may conclude that Hebrews was not written after Acts 28, but during the Acts period.

TIMOTHY SET AT LIBERTY

The only verse in the book itself that might lead the reader to believe that Hebrews was written after Acts 28 is 13:23, “Know ye that our brother Timothy is set at liberty……”.  Many commentators believe that Timothy’s being set free has to do with the Neronian persecution.  The fact of the matter is that we are not told in the Bible from what Timothy was set free; therefore we can only surmise.

As students of God’s perfect Word, I believe that it is much better to base our dating of Hebrews on what we know from Scripture rather than on what we surmise.  Furthermore, the proof set forth of Hebrews being written during the Acts period in the verses quoted above, is substantial.

It might be helpful, at this point, to draw some conclusions concerning our question of two callings in relation to the dating of Hebrews. I believe that there is more than enough Scriptural evidence from the epistle itself to prove that Hebrews was written during the Acts period. The dispensation of the mystery was a secret hidden in God during the Acts period.  Therefore, the writer of Hebrews could not possibly have written anything in that epistle which concerns a calling to any who live in the dispensation of the mystery. That being the case, we must conclude that the New Jerusalem was not a calling offered to any in the dispensation of the mystery.

TO WHOM WAS EPHESIANS WRITTEN?

Eph. 2:6 reads, “And God raised us up with Christ and seated us with Him in the heavenly realms in Christ Jesus”. Some who believe in two callings in the dispensation of the mystery point out, correctly, that Ephesians is addressed to “faithful saints”.  But the implication, in the mind of some, is that those who are not faithful are excluded from the promises of this epistle. And, because one of those promises in Ephesians is life in heavenly places, some believe that those who are not faithful are not promised life in heaven.

The problem is, as we have seen in our discussion of when Hebrews was written, Hebrews was written during the Acts period. Therefore, the New Jerusalem could not have been offered to any in the dispensation of the mystery because the mystery had not been revealed until after the end of the Acts period. If only the faithful are promised resurrection life in heaven, we have no scriptures telling us where the unfaithful will live. Even the unfaithful will have resurrection life, as we see in II Timothy 2:13, “If we are faithless, he will remain faithful, for he cannot disown himself”.  So let us examine the epistle to the Ephesians that we may determine if the unfaithful were excluded from the promises given in Ephesians.

Before we examine Ephesians, I believe that a verse from Philippians would be very helpful.  Philippians was written “to all the saints in Christ Jesus at Philippi…”(Phil. 1:1). Note that this epistle is written “to all the saints” with no distinction between the faithful and the unfaithful. We read in 3:14, “I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling”.  The “high calling” is the calling to heaven. Paul goes on to write in verse 15 that if any think differently (about pressing toward the mark for the prize of the high calling) that God will make it clear to them.  In other words, all saints are encouraged to press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling.  If all saints are encouraged to press toward the prize associated with the high calling, then obviously, all saints are called to the high calling.  Let me put that another way, as it is important. If the unfaithful are not called to the high calling, then Paul would not encourage them to press toward the prize of that calling.  Therefore, we may conclude that the high calling is for all believers, faithful as well as unfaithful, but the unfaithful will not receive a prize.

Some have said that the high calling itself is the prize and that prize is given only to the faithful.  I will quote a passage from The Third Step of the Alphabetical Analysis by Charles Welch. “It is exceedingly difficult to find support from any passage of Paul’s epistles to suppose that the prize was itself the high calling.  Just as the ‘reward of the inheritance’ in Col. 3:24, means the reward attached to an inheritance already assured by grace (Col. 1:12), so the prize of the high calling of God means the prize which is attached to the high calling already received and entered by grace.”  On page 4 of the “Third Step” Mr. Welch nullifies the argument that the word translated “high” is an adverb, and adverbs qualify verbs, therefore “calling” must be a verb.  He points out that in the Greek, adverbs do not qualify verbs only.

I believe therefore, that Philippians 3:14-15 answers the question as to whom the high calling is promised, i.e. “to all the saints”.  But let us look at the epistle to the Ephesians in order to determine if the unfaithful were excluded from the promises contained in that epistle.

Let us look at Eph.1:5, “he predestined us to be adopted as his sons through Jesus Christ”.  Compare I John 3:1, “How great is the love the Father has lavished on us, that we should be called children of God.”   John did not exclude the unfaithful in calling them God’s children. If all believers are children of God, then Eph. 1:5 was written to all believers, faithful or not.

Eph. 1:7, “In Him we have redemption through His blood…..”.  Is it only the faithful that have redemption through His blood?  It is not, it is all who “believe in Him” (John 3:16). Therefore, we may conclude that Eph. 1:7 was written to all who are redeemed, faithful or not.

Eph. 1:11, “In whom we have an inheritance being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will”. Who is the “we” that has the inheritance spoken of in this verse? For the answer to that question we must go back to verse 7, “In Him we have redemption through His blood”.  All believers are redeemed through His blood, so all believers are included in verse 7.  Verse 8 reads, wherein he hath abounded toward us…”.  The “us” of verse 8 is the same people as the “we” of verse 7, i.e. all believers of the dispensation of the mystery.  Let us consider verse 9, “Having made known unto us the mystery of his will…..”. (Note that verse 9 speaks of the “mystery of His will”, not the dispensation of the mystery.)  The mystery of His will is described in verse 10, that “he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven and which are on earth”. So verse 9 is written to the same people as are verses 7-8.  We then have a parenthetical statement concerning the mystery of His will.  Then in verse 11 Paul wrote “in Whom we….”.  Who is the “we” of verse 11″?  The “we” of verse 11 is the same people Paul was writing to in verses 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, and 10, i.e. all believers in the dispensation of the mystery.

Eph. 1:13-14, “……Having believed, you were marked in Him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit, who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God’s possession…”.  Note II Cor. 5:5, “and has given us the spirit as a deposit, guaranteeing what is to come”.  II Corinthians was written to “all the saints (see II Cor. 1:1).  The unfaithful were not excluded from receiving the deposit guaranteeing redemption. The guarantee of resurrection life transcends dispensational boundaries.  Resurrection life is no less sure in the present dispensation than it was in the Acts period. We have every confidence, therefore, that all believers received the deposit guaranteeing their redemption?  Therefore, Eph. 1:13-14 includes all saints, i.e. all believers, the faithful and the unfaithful.

Eph. 2:5, “made us alive in Christ even when we were dead in transgressions-it is by grace you have been saved”.  Is this true of faithful believers only?  Absolutely not.  It is true of all believers.  Consider then the following verse,  “And God raised us up with Christ and seated us with Him in the heavenly realms”.  If verse 5 is true of all believers, faithful and unfaithful, there is absolutely nothing in this passage that suggests that verse 6 is not equally true of all believers, faithful and unfaithful. Of course, verse 6, unlike verse 5, is dispensational and is true of believers of only the dispensation of the mystery.

The point is this: when reading the epistle to the Ephesians it is clear that, at the very least, the verses quoted above were written to all believers of the present dispensation.   If one simply reads this epistle without any preconceived ideas of whether it was written to exclude the unfaithful, I believe that it is quite clear that it includes all believers.

There is one more thing to consider before we leave our discussion of Ephesians. When we rightly divide the word of truth we know that the calling of the earthly kingdom was promised to the believers of Israel.  We know that based on two truths. Those two truths are: 1) that promise was made quite specifically in any number of scriptures written concerning Israel. 2) There is only one calling mentioned for believers in the dispensation of the law. (The paper on this web-site, The Wife and the Bride of Revelation shows that there were not two callings for two different groups.)

If we apply those same two truths to the dispensation of the mystery, we shall be led to conclude that all believers in the present dispensation are called to one calling, i.e. heavenly places. Let us examine that thought.  1) The promise of a heavenly calling was made quite specifically in Eph. 2:6, in Col 3:1, etc., the epistles written after Acts 28.   2) There is only one calling in the dispensation of the mystery mentioned in the Bible.  Just as two truths help us to understand that the calling in the previous dispensation was an earthly one, so too do the same truths help us to understand that the one calling in the dispensation of the mystery is to heavenly places.

I hesitate to say why something is in the Bible, but in this case, because so much has been made of it, it might be worth considering the question of why Paul addresses his epistle to “faithful saints”.  As mentioned above, some believe that the epistle is so addressed in order to exclude unfaithful saints.  But as we have seen, there is no such exclusion.  We all know that towards the end of his ministry, many forsook Paul.  But is it really so difficult to believe that at the time Paul wrote this epistle, all the saints were faithful? That is to say, perhaps Paul believed that all saints were faithful.  That is, in my opinion, a much more reasonable conclusion than to say that Paul addressed the epistle to faithful saints in order to exclude unfaithful saints.

THE PRINCIPLE OF A PRECEDENCE OF AN ELECTION WITHIN AN ELECTION

The argument has been put forth by those who believe in two callings in the dispensation of the mystery which states in essence that because there was an election within an election in the previous dispensation, precedence was set for two callings in the dispensation of the mystery. That is, that the elect are called to one calling and the elect within the election are called to another.

In his book Dispensational Truth, chapter 15, Charles Welch has given his reasons for believing that there is an election within an election in the dispensation of the mystery. In the paper Is There An Election Within An Election? I give my reasons for saying that while there was an election within an election in the previous dispensation, both groups were called to the same calling. Therefore, there is no Scriptural evidence to prove that there are two callings in the present dispensation.

Mr. Welch, in the book mentioned above, points to a smaller group in Numbers 18 that were elected out of the elect nation of Israel; that does make for an election within an election.  But those in Numbers 18 were elected for the purpose of serving; it was not an election to a different calling.  Therefore, Numbers 18 does not set precedence for two callings in one dispensation.

There is no question that the 144,000 who will be chosen out of the nation of Israel is an election within an election.  But again, they were not called to a different calling, they were chosen to be faithful. Again, the calling of the 144,000 to faithfulness does not set precedence for two callings in the same dispensation.

Some in the Acts 28 community believe that the land of Israel and the New Jerusalem are two callings for Israel in the same dispensation.  That the earthly Jerusalem was for the elect nation and the New Jerusalem was the calling for the elect remnant of that nation. If that were true, it would set a precedence for two callings in the dispensation of the mystery.  In my paper on this web-site, The Wife And The Bride I present the Scriptural reasons for my belief that the wife and the bride are not two different groups with two different callings. The wife is faithful Israel blessed for Her faithfulness with entrance into the kingdom of Heaven.  The bride is also faithful Israel who, after the kingdom of Heaven has run its course, are blessed by being allowed entrance into the New Jerusalem. The point is that there is no Scriptural evidence that there were ever two callings in one dispensation.  Therefore, there is no precedence for two callings in the dispensation of the mystery.

CONCLUSION

Many people have made the comment, “God can have two elections with two different callings in the same dispensation”.  Of course He can.  The question is not can He, but has He.  There are absolutely no scriptures to support the view that some in the dispensation of the mystery will have a different calling than heavenly places. As faithful students of His Word, we may not simply make one up.

The parable of Matthew 22 is the only passage that supposedly alludes to those of the dispensation of the mystery who are called to a different calling than others. Because in truth, there are no such people, we have no reference in the entire Bible to any living in the dispensation of the mystery who have not “risen with Him” (Col. 3:1).

Hebrews is said to offer the calling of the New Jerusalem to some in the dispensation of the mystery.  But Hebrews was written during the Acts period. The dispensation of the mystery was a secret hidden in God during the Acts period.  Therefore Hebrews could not have been written to those in a dispensation not yet revealed.  So not only is there no mention of a people in the dispensation of the mystery who are called to a different calling, there is no mention of a calling, other than heavenly places, for those of this present dispensation.

Ephesians 2:6 clearly states that believers in the dispensation of the mystery will be blessed in heavenly places.  Because there are any number of verses in chapter one of that epistle that do not exclude the unfaithful, we must conclude that 2:6 does not exclude the unfaithful either.

We have also seen that Philippians, which is explicitly written “to all saints” encourages all saints to press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling.  If all saints in the dispensation of the mystery are encouraged to press toward that mark, obviously all saints are included in the high calling.

There had been, in the previous dispensation, an election within an election, and there will be again.  But there has never been two different callings in the same dispensation. Therefore, there is no precedence for two callings in the dispensation of the mystery.

There is no mentioned in the Bible of a group in the dispensation of the mystery that is called to a calling other than heavenly places.

There is no mentioned of a calling for those of this dispensation other than heavenly places.

There is a clear promise in Eph. 2:6 that all believers in this present dispensation are called to heaven.

There is no precedence for a doctrine of two callings in one dispensation.  Therefore:

THE DOCTRINE OF TWO CALLINGS IN THE DISPENSATION OF THE MYSTERY HAS NO SCRIPTURAL SUPPORT AND IS, THEREFORE, FALSE.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. I would love to hear your thoughts. Please E-mail me at: [email protected]

August 8, 2022/ Religion

FIRSTBORN: WAS CHRIST BORN BEFORE ANYONE ELSE? – Right Word Truth

maximios /

We read in Col. 1:15-16, “Who is the image of the invisible God, the Firstborn of every creature: For by Him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by Him, and for Him”.

Does this passage tell us that Christ was born before any one or any thing else? If it does, would that mean that there was a time before Christ was born that He didn’t exist? I believe that Jesus Christ is both Jehovah as spirit, and Jehovah manifest. (Please see the paper on this website Jesus Christ Is Both Jehovah And The Manifestation Of Jehovah for the Scriptural evidence of that statement.) In other words, Christ is eternal, there was never a time when He did not exist.

Before we embark on a study of Col. 1:15 we will need to understand all the nuances of the word “firstborn”. What does it mean to be the “firstborn”? The answer to that question lies in the context of each time the word “firstborn” is used.  We will examine those passages.

WHAT DOES IT MEAN TO BE THE FIRSTBORN?

In one sense the answer to the question posed in the heading of this section is quite obvious because it is clear that the term means to be the one that is born first in a family. But to be born first in a family, especially in Biblical times, has great significance.

We read in Gen. 27 of Jacob’s deception when he made his father Isaac think he was Esau in order to gain for himself the blessings of his firstborn brother. We read in verses 26-29, “And his father Isaac said unto him” (Jacob, pretending to be Esau) ‘Come near now, and kiss me, my son.’ And he came near, and kissed him; and he smelled the smell of his raiment, and blessed him, and said, ‘See, the smell of my son is as the smell of a field which the Lord hath blessed: therefore God give thee of the dew of heaven, and the fatness of the earth, and plenty of corn and wine: Let people serve thee, and nations bow down to thee: be lord over thy brethren, and let thy mother’s sons bow down to thee….”. This blessing was given to one who Isaac thought was Esau, and it was given solely because Esau was the firstborn.

We read in Numbers 3:13, “….all the firstborn are Mine; for on the day that I smote all the firstborn in the land of Egypt I hallowed unto Me all the firstborn in Israel, both man and beast; Mine shall they be….”. This would explain why the firstborn son is the preeminent son in a Hebrew family.

“FIRST BORN FROM THE DEAD”

One might ask: if Christ was not born first, i.e. before any one else, why is He called the “Firstborn? For the answer to that question we will turn to Ps. 2: 7 which reads, “I will declare the decree: The Lord hath said unto Me, ‘Thou art My Son; This day have I begotten Thee“. To what “day” does the phrase “this day” refer? The note in the Companion Bible suggests that it is at His resurrection that Christ was begotten. Let us examine that thought.

We read in Acts 13:32-33, “And we declare unto you glad tidings, how that the promise which was made unto the fathers, God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that He hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, ‘Thou are My Son, this day have I begotten Thee’” Here Paul, by inspiration of the Holy Spirit, tells us that the promise of Psalm two that God’s Son would be begotten is fulfilled at Christ’s resurrection.

Col. 1:18 which also speaks of Christ as the Firstborn confirms that Christ was “begotten” at His resurrection. “And He is the Head of the body, the church: Who is the beginning, the Firstborn from the dead; that in all things He might have the preeminence“. This verse uses the phrase “Firstborn from the dead” which is, of course, an obvious reference to Christ’s resurrection. And it also tells us that His position as the Firstborn from the dead gives Him the preeminence in all things.

“FIRSTBORN” IN ROMANS 8:29

We have seen that the every firstborn son has a preeminent position in the family. He is “hallowed” unto God, and he is due a greater blessings than all his siblings. Romans 8:29 gives us a wonderful example of the preeminent position given to Christ as the Firstborn. Rom. 8:28-29 reads, “And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to His purpose. For whom He did foreknow, He also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of His Son that He might be the firstborn among many brethren”.

This passage speaks of Christ being the firstborn among many. Does it speak of the order in relation to His brethren in which Christ was actually born? No, I do not believe that is what this passage is about. We are told quite specifically that whom God called He made them to be conformed to the “image of His Son” “that” Christ might be the Firstborn. The fact of some being made conformable to His image has nothing to do with when in relation to others Christ was born. It has to do with Christ’s position of preeminence because He was the firstborn from the dead. My point is that this passage in Romans 8 uses the word “firstborn” to indicate Christ’s preeminence, not the order in which He was born or even the order in which He was raised from the dead..

COLOSSIANS 1:15-17

I believe that we are now ready to look at Col. 1:15-17 which reads, “Who is the image of the invisible God, the Firstborn of every creature: For by Him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominion, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by Him and for Him: and He is before all things, and by Him all things consist”.

We have seen that the term “firstborn” can refer to the order in which one was born and it could also refer to the preeminence of that person. To which does it refer in the passage in Col. 1? Let us take our answer from the immediate context. Verse 18b makes the point of this entire passage, “that in all things He might have the preeminence”. In short, this passage is not about “firstborn” in relation to anyone’s or anything’s birth. It is about Christ’s position of  “preeminence”.

If we understand this passage to say that Christ was born before any one or any thing else we must ask if there was a time when Christ did not exist, i.e. a time before His birth? But Christ is God, God is eternal, there never was a time when He did not exist.

In short, to say that Col. 1:15 tells us that Christ was “born” first, i.e. before any thing or any one else was created implies that He did not exist before He was born. As mentioned above, I believe that Christ is both Jehovah and Jehovah manifest. As Jehovah, Who is spirit, Christ has always existed. Therefore, I believe that Col. 1:15 tells us that Christ is preeminent in all things created.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to respond please e-mail me at: [email protected]

August 8, 2022/ Religion

UNIVERSAL SALVATION – Right Word Truth

maximios /

There are many Christians who believe that there will come a time when all men will be saved, regardless of whether they believed in Christ in this life or not. Many believe that those who did not accept Christ will be raised for the great white throne judgment and given another chance to accept Christ as their Savior. And since the power of God had been proven by the resurrection of the unbeliever who will stand at the great white throne, it is assumed that all men will believe in Him Who raised them from the dead.

In discussing this topic I will present several topics from the Bible which I believe will greatly impact on the subject of universal salvation. These topics are:

I. The Difference Between Universal Reconciliation And Universal Salvation

II.  What Is Death?

III. Who Will Be Judged At The Great White Throne?

IV.  The Resurrection Of The Unjust

V. Passages that seem to say that unbelievers will be raised for judgment

VI. Resurrection in the Old Testament

VII.   Passages That Seem To Teach Universal Salvation

I. The Difference Between Universal Reconciliation And Universal Salvation

II Cor. 5:18-19 makes it clear that the Bible does indeed teach that the whole world is reconciled to God by the shed blood of Christ on the cross. “All this is from God, Who reconciled us to Himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation: that God was reconciling the world to Himself in Christ, not counting men’s sins against them…”. Note that reconciliation is God acting unilaterally, that is to say, reconciliation is unconditional, not in any way dependent on anything that man may or may not do.

Consider also Col. 1:19-20, For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him, and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether things on earth or things in heaven, by making peace through his blood, shed on the cross”.

Let us go on in our study and look at Romans 5:10 which also speaks of reconciliation.. “For if, when we were God’s enemies, we were reconciled to him through the death of his Son, how much more, having been reconciled, shall we be saved through his life!” Note that Paul is making a distinction between reconciliation and salvation. That is to say, he is saying that now that we have been reconciled by Christ’s death, then we may go on and be saved through His life.

Acts 16:30-31 is a passage that explains the condition which must be met in order to be saved, “..what must I do to be saved? They replied, ‘Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved…”.

One might ask, “As long as an unbeliever has been reconciled to God and his  sins are not counted against him, why will he not be granted resurrection life? The answer is that resurrection life is a gift. It is a gift that is given to all who believe. “For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have everlasting life.”(John 3:16).  In other words, resurrection is a gift from God to those who believe in His Son, God does not give this  gift to those who do not believe in His Son.  Most Christians tend to believe that it is sin that keeps the unbeliever from resurrection life. But that is not what Scripture teach. Sin is not imputed, even to the unbeliever. But the gift of eternal life is not given even to the unbeliever who, in God’s sight, has no sin (because it is not counted against him) because resurrection life is given only to those who believe in His resurrected Son.

Another question we might ask is, if God does not impute one’s sin against him, why are there calls to repentance? In my paper on this web-site, Repent! Is Not A Message Of Salvation I give the reasons for my belief that one is never called upon to repent in order to be saved from the grave. I realize that this is not a widely held view, so I urge the reader to look at the above- mentioned paper.

When God reconciled the world to Himself He no longer counted men’s sins against them. So when a man dies, God does not count his sins against him whether that man accepted Christ as his Savior or not. Does that mean that because no sins are counted against the unbeliever that the unbeliever is saved? Absolutely not! Salvation is not unconditional, as is reconciliation; salvation is based on the condition of belief in Christ.

One might ask, “If reconciliation is not the same as salvation, what is it?”. That question is answered in the paper on this web-site, “Who Was Reconciled To God By the Cross?“.

II. WHAT IS DEATH?

Phil. 2:9 -11 is a passage that is often quoted to show that universal salvation is a Scriptural truth. It reads, “Therefore God exalted Him to the highest place and gave Him the name that is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father”. Some who espouse the doctrine of universal salvation point to this passage and say that it includes even the unbeliever who are dead. Our topic therefore demands that we understand the Scriptural description of death.

We read in Job 14:10, “But man dies and is laid low; he breathes his last and is no more”.

And in Isaiah 26:14 we read, “They are now dead, they live no more; those departed spirits do not rise. You punished them and brought them to ruin; you wiped out all memory of them“. It is clear from these scriptures that apart from resurrection, man, when he dies, is no more. If he is no more, he can not have a second chance at salvation. (The note in the Companion Bible suggest that Is. 26:14 refers to Rephaim, the progeny of fallen angels, not to the offspring of Adam. The paper on this web-site Were The Rephaim Progeny Of Fallen Angles? will prove from Scripture that they were not progeny of fallen angels and that this verse is in reference to even most important men.

Jer. 51:39 and 57, “In their heat I will make their feasts and I will make them drunken, that they may rejoice, and sleep a perpetual sleep, and not wake, saith the Lord”.

Let us also consider, Psalm 49:13-15, “This is the fate of those who trust in themselves,…..Like sheep they are destined for the grave, and death will feed on them. The upright will rule over them in the morning; their forms will decay in the grave far from their princely mansions. But God will redeem my soul from the grave; He will surely take me to Himself”. Note the contrast in this verse. The forms will decay, but the writer of the Psalm will be redeemed. Without redemption, i.e. resurrection, there is no life after death.

Job 8:13, “Such is the destiny of all who forget God; so perishes the hope of the godless”. Not only does the godless man perish, but this verse tells us that his hope perishes as well.

Mr. A.E. Knoch, one of the main teachers of the universal salvation doctrine writes, “The sinner is raised from the dead because he cannot be judged in the death state. Once raised he has tasted the power of God and sees the acts of his previous life in the light of the divine presence”. And he also writes, “There can be no judgment in death. The resurrection of the unjust is proof positive that there can be no judgment before the sinner has been restored to life.” Mr. Knoch also writes, “It (the judgment of the unjust) is at the great white throne in the interval between the resurrection and the second death. We are dealing with the great mass of mankind.” It is clear that the key issue to universal salvation is that all unbelievers will be raised and judged at the great white throne. It is with this issue that, in my opinion, the doctrine of universal salvation totally fails. We have already seen that there are at least six passages that tell us that some will not be raised for judgment or anything else. We will study this issue in the next section of this paper.

III. WHO WILL BE JUDGED AT THE GREAT WHITE THRONE?

It has long been taught that all unbelievers of every dispensation will be judged at the great white throne. Let us consider this by searching the Scriptures.

One of the things we must understand about Revelation is its extremely Jewish character. That is to say, it was written to and about Israel.  Another truth we must understand is that the book of Revelation is the most extensive writing in the Bible about the tribulation. When we put these two truths together we will begin to understand who will be judged at the great white throne.  Let us first examine the question of to whom Revelation was written.

We read in 1:5-6, “To Him who loves us and has freed us from our sins by His blood, and has made us to be a kingdom of priests to serve His God and Father….”. Who is the “us” to whom John refers?  It is those to whom He made to be a “kingdom of priests”.  When we read Exodus 19:6 we will see that Israel will be a kingdom of priests. Ex. 19:3 reads, “Then Moses went up to God, and the Lord called up to him and said, ‘This is what you are to say to the house of Jacob and what you are to tell the people of Israel“.  And Ex. 19:6 reads, “although the whole world is Mine you will be for Me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation”.  Revelation was written to Israel.

Nowhere do we read of the Church being a kingdom of priests.  The only New Testament reference to a kingdom of priests is in I Peter 2:9, “But you are a chosen people, a royal priesthood, a holy nation…”. But we must note that Peter wrote his epistle to “the elect strangers scattered throughout…..”. (I Peter 1:1)  i.e.,  the dispersed of Israel.  How do we know that? The Greek word “diaspora” translated here “scattered” occurs three times in the New Testament.  In John 7:35 we read, “The Jews said to one another, ‘Where does this Man intend to go that we cannot find Him?  Will He go where our people are scattered among the Greeks?”  In this verse, it is obvious that “diaspora” refers to the scattered of Israel.  The second occurrence of “diaspora” is found in James 1:1, “To the twelve tribes scattered among the nations”.  The reference here is also obvious.  The third occurrence is in I Peter 1:1.   We find in this matter a perfection in the Word of God which one would expect.  That is, that the Greek word “diaspora” refers to the scattered of Israel.

We read in Rev. 1:5-6 that the kingdom of priests is Israel.  We cannot apply this phrase to the Church which is His Body (not a nation) without doing a great injustice to the written Word of God. John’s revelation was written to Israel, and more specifically, as we shall see, to Israel of the tribulation.

Consider also  the number of Old Testament quotations and references found in Revelation compared to  other New Testament books.  In the Gospel of Matthew (The Hebrew Gospel) there are 92 references to the Old Testament.  In Hebrews there are 102 and in Revelation there are 285.

We have seen that Revelation was written to and about Israel.  But more than that, we must see that it is about Israel during the end times, which includes, of course the tribulation. Note for example Rev. 7:14, “…..These are they who have come out of the great tribulation….”.  Note also the several references to three and one-half years (Rev. 12:6 and14, also13:5) and compare that to Daniel 9:27. It is clear that Dan. 9:26b-27 speaks of the tribulation where we are told that the covenant will be broken in the middle of the seven year treaty, i.e. after three and one-half years, after which time the tribulation will begin.

One other fact that goes to show that Israel is at the very center of the tribulation is that in Jeremiah 30:7 we read of the tribulation, but it is called there, “Jacob’s trouble”.

Revelation is the book in the Bible that has the most to say about the tribulation. The great white throne is mentioned by name only in Revelation. These facts connect the great white throne with the tribulation. Because the Revelation is addressed to, and concerns Israel, I believe we must rightly divide the Word of truth and see this book in its correct dispensational setting.

Now let us consider more specifically the judgment at the great white throne. As we go to Rev. 20: 4-6 we will discover more about who will be judged at the great white throne.  “…. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony for Jesus and because of the word of God.  They had not worshiped the beast or his image and had not received his mark on their foreheads or their hands.”   The fact that this concerns those who did not worship the beast  tells us that John is speaking of those who went through the great tribulation, he is not speaking of every person that ever lived from the beginning of time. Let us go on with verse 4, “They (i.e. those who had not worshiped the beast during the great tribulation) came to life and reigned with Christ a thousand years.”

Now let us go to verse 5,   “(The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.)”  To say that the “rest of the dead” in this verse applies to the dead of all ages is to take this phrase entirely out of context.  The context is clearly contrasting those who did not receive the mark of the beast during the tribulation, with those who did.  The former will reign with Christ in His millennial reign, the latter will be raised after the millennial reign to be judged. But in both cases, those who did and those who did not receive the mark of the beast, were obviously, those who lived during the tribulation as it will be only during the tribulation that one will or will not receive the mark of the beast. .

It is clear that we must take the phrase “the rest of the dead” in its context in order to have a correct understanding of who “the rest of the dead” will be.  Let me put this concept in terms of every day life.  If we, for example, went to a dog show, we might see that after the first round of judging some dogs were allowed to leave, but others were being kept. One of the judges might dismiss some dogs, but ask the rest of the dogs to go to a different room for further testing. When the judge asks the rest of the dogs to go to a different room, he did not have in mind the rest of the dogs in the whole world, but the rest of the dogs that were in the competition.

So when John writes of the “rest of the dead”, he is not referring to the rest of the dead who ever lived, he is referring to the rest of the dead who lived through the tribulation. We must take things in their context.

Let us look again at Rev. 20:5 where we read, “The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended”.  The word “loipos” is the Greek word translated here “rest”.  It occurs 42 times and is translated “other(s)” 24 times; “rest” 12 times; “remnant” 4 times and “residue” and “remains” one time each.

One of the verses which translates “loipos” as “other” is II Cor. 12:13, “How were you inferior to the other churches, except that I was never a burden to you?”  Did Paul mean all the churches of the world, including all the false religions of the world, or only Christian churches?  The answer is obvious; we must consider “other” in its context.

Consider also Gal. 2:13, “The other Jews joined him in his hypocrisy…”. The context will show that the hypocrisy was that believing Jews refused to eat with Gentiles. Unbelieving Jews would not even have considered such a thing as they considered it against the Mosaic tradition.  So by not eating with Gentiles, unbelieving Jews would have been living in ignorance, not hypocrisy.   Again, we must consider “other” in the context or we will certainly be led astray in our seeking for the truth.  In this case “other” is limited to believing Jews, and does not include unbelieving Jews.

It is clear in these verses that the word “other” is the best translation.  But an examination of all the verses in which “loipos” is translated “rest” will show that “other(s)” is what is intended.  In each of the 42 occurrences of “loipos” the context tells us who the others are. That is to say, the word itself is limiting, and the context shows to whom the word is limited.

If “loipos” had been translated “others” in Rev. 20:5 there would have been no difficulty with the question of who would be judged at the great white throne.  “…. I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony for Jesus and because of the word of God.  They had not worshiped the beast or his image and had not received his mark on their foreheads or their hands.  They came to life and reigned with Christ a thousand years.  (The others did not come to life until the thousand years were ended).”

The translators chose “rest” instead of “others”, but “others” is certainly more accurate. That is to say, that if Rev. 20:5 had been translated in the same way as the majority of the occurrences of “loipos”, we would have understood that the “others” referred to in verse 5 are those who did worship the beast during the tribulation.

We might ask ourselves why, out of all the times of history, will  the unbelievers of the tribulation be raised to be judged. I believe that the tribulation will be a very special time when those who are to be tested will have to choose between remaining true to the God of heaven and earth, or worshiping Satan. Those who remain true to God and refuse to worship the antichrist or to receive the mark of the beast may lose their lives, but they will partake in the first resurrection and will live and reign with Christ.  Those who do receive the mark of the beast and who do worship the antichrist may save their temporal lives but will be judged at the great white throne, and are in danger of suffering the second death, i.e. being cast into the lake of fire.

Some might object to the fairness that some unbelievers, i.e. those that live during the tribulation period, will be subject to judgment and to the punishment of the second death, while most unbelievers will not be raised for such a judgment. Let us examine that objection.

While it is true, in my opinion, that unbelievers of the end times are subject to punishment that unbelievers of other dispensations are not, it is also true that they will be the beneficiaries of many special signs and ministries of God. For example, Matthew 24:4-29 is a record of the signs of the end times given by our Lord to His disciples so that they might recognize them when the end comes. These signs are recorded for all who seek the truth concerning those days, and should prove to all who read it that God is the One true God. Note verse 5 where we are warned that false prophets will come and deceive many. Verse 15, “So when you see standing in the holy place the abomination that causes desolation, spoken of through the prophet Daniel-let the reader understand- then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains”. What further sign that the end times have arrived could anyone possibly want then an idol in God’s holy temple? And how could even the unbeliever not be convinced that God is Who He says He is when he is a witness to the fulfillment of prophecy in his own time?

As if that were not enough, we read in Rev. 11:3 of two witnesses, “And I will give power to my two witnesses, and they will prophesy for 1,260 days, clothed in sackcloth”. We read in verse 5 of these two witnesses and the absolute proof of their being sent from God. “If anyone tries to harm them, fire comes from their mouths and devours their enemies”. And what more proof can anyone require that these prophets were from God and spoke God’s truth when after they are killed, they will be raised from the dead?

And as if that were not enough, let us consider Rev. 14:6-7, “Then I saw another angel flying in midair, and he had the eternal gospel to proclaim to those who live on the earth-to every nation, tribe, language and people. He said in a loud voice, ‘Fear God and give him glory, because the hour of His judgment has come“. What could possibly be more convincing?

I believe that it is true that some unbelievers (those of the tribulation period) will be judged and punished whereas other unbelievers will not be. But those who will be judged and punished are given more advantages in hearing the truth than in other dispensations, and will therefore, be without excuse

Some might say that while it is true that most of the Revelation has to do with tribulation times, the scope of the book broadens when we get to the great white throne in chapter 20.  Let us examine that thought.  In Rev. 2:7 we read for the first time of overcoming. “…. To him who overcomes I will give the right to eat from the tree of life, which is in the paradise of God”.  The paradise of God is described towards the end of the book in Rev. 21 and we read in verse 7 of that chapter, “He who overcomes will inherit all this…”. Chapter two which is, of course, towards the beginning of the book, promises the over-comers of the tribulation life in the “paradise of God”, and chapter 21 which is towards the end of the book, describes that paradise and promises it once again to the over-comers.  Over-comers of what we might ask?  It is clear that it is the over-comers of the tribulation that John had in mind.  Because the promise made in chapter 2 is made to the over-comers of the tribulation, and that same promise is referred to in chapter 21, it is obvious that the scope of Revelation does not change from chapter 2 to chapter 21. Most of the book centers on the tribulation and the reward or judgment of those who lived and/or died during it.

Going back again to chapter two of Revelation, we read in verse 11, “He who overcomes will not be hurt at all by the second death”.  The second death is explained in Rev. 20:14, “The second death is the lake of fire”. The same promise is made in chapter two concerning the second death as is made again in chapter 20.  “Blessed and holy are those who have part in the first resurrection.  The second death has no power over them…”  (Rev. 20:6).  Again, the same promise is made to the same people (the over-comers of the tribulation) in chapter two as is made in chapter 20.  This, once again, shows that the scope of Revelation does not change from the beginning of the book to the end of the book.

Let us continue with the misconception that the scope of Revelation changes (broadens) once we get to the New Heavens and New Earth of Rev. 21.  We should note that the description John gives of the New Heaven and New Earth is still centered on Israel.  Note for example the reference to the “bride” in 21:3, 9 and 13.  The bride is, of course, Israel.  Note also verse 12 and the reference to the 12 gates and the 12 tribes of Israel.

Verse 24 of chapter 21 is also significant. “The nations will walk by its light, and the kings of the earth will bring their splendor into it”.  And verse 26, “The glory and honor of the nations will be brought into it”.  The nations will bring glory and honor into the New Jerusalem, the bride of Christ, Israel.  The book of Revelation centers on Israel from the first chapter to the last, the scope does not change. We may not, therefore, include all dispensations in Revelation without doing great injustice to the truth.

We have seen by comparing the earlier chapters of Revelation with the last chapters of Revelation that the scope of the book does not change at all. Most of the book has to do with the tribulation and the reward or punishment given to those who lived through it.  Therefore, when we read in chapter 20 of the great white throne, we should not read into God’s Word that which is not intended. That is to say, we may not include all of humanity from every dispensation, when most of the book centers on a three and one-half year time period. In another paper on this web-site, I give the reasons for my belief that the tribulation is not world wide, this limits the Revelation not only in the length of time, but also its geographic area. (Please see The Tribulation Is Not Worldwide).

I am suggesting that because the great white throne appears in the context of the tribulation that it is limited to those who lived in that time period.  I believe that only the unbelievers who went through the tribulation will be raised and judged at the great white throne, not all unbelievers from every dispensation.

There are a few passages that do speak of the resurrection of the unjust. Do those passages speak of mankind in general? Let us examine the scriptures for an answer to that question.

IV. PASSAGES THAT SPEAK OF THE RESURRECTION OF THE UNJUST DANIEL 12:1-2

There are several passages in the New Testament about judgment. We will look only at those passages that speak of resurrection and judgment of the unjust as those are the only passages that impact on our study.

Daniel 12:1-2 is a passage that speaks of the resurrection and judgment of the unjust. “At that time Michael, the great prince who protects your people, will arise. There will be a time of distress such as has not happened from the beginning of nations until then. But at that time your people, everyone whose name is written in the book of life, will be delivered. Multitudes who sleep in the dust will awake, some to everlasting life and others to shame and everlasting contempt. “ How are we to understand this passage, who does it concern, when will this judgment take place?  Some of these questions are answered in the passage itself. Note for example, the phrase “your people” appears twice. That tells us that this passage is about Daniel’s people, Israel. What is the time that is spoken of in this passage? We are told that it is about the time of the greatest distress, i.e. the great tribulation. This makes sense; the tribulation is to be centered on Israel, Daniel’s people.

We read of those whose name is written in the book of life. While it is true that believers of the dispensation of the mystery have their names written in the book of life, I believe that to make Daniel 12:1-2 apply to believers of all dispensations is take the phrase “book of life” in Daniel out of context and force a meaning that the context will not allow. The context is about Israel and the tribulation, not about everyone who ever lived in the whole world.

To summarize what we have learned of this passage: The resurrection of Daniel 12 includes the unjust, but limits that resurrection in time and scope. It limits the resurrection to the time of the tribulation and to the people of Israel. Again, we may not, in my opinion, include all unbelievers in this passage, as the Holy Spirit was specific in the description of the time and the scope of this resurrection.

My point is that Dan. 12 speaks of a resurrection of the unbeliever, but that resurrection is limited to  unbelievers of Israel who went through the tribulation. Therefore, this passage can not be used in an attempt to prove that everyone who ever lived will be raised for the judgment at the great white throne. If one is not raised, one does not have a second chance to accept eternal life.

The phrase, “Multitudes who sleep in the dust will awake, some to everlasting life and others to shame…” is similar to the one in John 5 and will be discussed in the next section of this paper.

JOHN 5:24-29

Other than the passage in Revelation 20 about the great white throne judgment, there are only three  passages in the New Testament that mention a resurrection and judgment of the unjust. The first one is in John 5:24-29. Let us begin however, with John 5:24-25 which  reads, “I tell you the truth, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be condemned; he has crossed over from death to life. I tell you the truth, a time is coming and has now come when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of Man, and those who hear will live.”

But then, in verses 28-29 our Lord says, “Do not be amazed at this, for a time is coming when all who are in their graves will hear His voice and come out – those who have done good will rise to live and those who have done evil will rise to be condemned”. In verse 25 “the dead will hear the voice of the Son of Man and those who hear will live“. But in verses 28-29 we are told that all in the graves will hear His voice and come out but not all will live. “Those who have done evil will rise to be condemned“.

There seems to be a contradiction in this passage. That is to say, in verse 25 our Lord says those in their graves who hear His voice will live. But in verses 28 and 29 He says that some of those in the grave who hear His voice will not live but be condemned.(While it is true that the word “judgment” is a better translation of the Greek than “condemned”, it does not change the basic meaning of the passage, as it involves judgment of the wicked.)

The key to understanding this passage is to note that both statements begin with “A time is coming”. I believe that the only way we can understand this passage and to answer the seeming contradiction, is to recognize the fact that there are two resurrections mentioned in this passage, and they occur at two different times. The first one mentioned is for the believer who will not be judged but has passed from death to life; the second resurrection mentioned is for those who will be judged. Let us examine each resurrection for the Scriptural evidence, which will tell us when these two resurrections will take place.

In verse 24 we read of those who “believe” and have therefore, “crossed over from death to life”. I believe that this resurrection points us to I Thess. 4:16 where we read of the second coming of our Lord when “the dead in Christ will rise …”. The resurrection of verses 24-26 then, refers to the resurrection at the second coming, i.e. at the beginning of the millennial reign.

When will the resurrection of verses 28-29 occur? We are not told explicitly when, but we are told something of the character of the judgment of those who are resurrected. We read in verse 29 that they will be judged according to what they have done, “those who have done good will rise to live, and those who have done evil will rise to be condemned”. This seems to be salvation by works! But salvation has always been by grace through faith. Nowhere but here, in John five, and in Revelation 20 do we read of the resurrection of the unbeliever in order to be judged according to their works. (The judgment of Matt. 25  is also a  judgment of works, but it  is a judgment, not of those who will be raised, but a judgement of those whose will be alive at  the time of the second coming of Christ.)

Because the only two passages that speak of a resurrection to judgment by works occurs in John 5:28-29 and in Rev. 20 at the great white throne, I believe that we may conclude both passages speak of the same event, the great white throne judgment. It is after the millennial reign, so the resurrection of John five verses 28-29 refers to the one after the millennial reign. Just as the first resurrection mentioned in Rev. 20:6 is for those who were resurrected before the millennial reign, so the first mention of a resurrection in John 5 ( i.e. verses 25-27) is before the millennial reign. So also, just as the second resurrection of Rev. 20:11-14 will be for those who will be raised for judgment after the millennial reign, so too those in John 5:28-29 will be raised for judgment after the millennial reign. The judgment that occurs after the millennial reign is at the great white throne. We have a complete and beautiful symmetry between John 5 and Rev. 20.

As discussed in the paragraphs above, the resurrection of Rev. 20 at the great white throne is limited to those who lived during the tribulation period, so also, is the resurrection of John 5:28-29 limited to those who lived during the tribulation period because they will be judged at the great white throne.

Let me summarize what has been written here concerning John 5. John 5:24-27 speaks of the resurrection of believers; they will be raised before the millennial reign of Christ, and they will not be judged. The resurrection of verses 28-29, on the other hand, will be after the millennial reign of Christ and they will be judged. By comparing John 5:28-29 with Rev. 20 we see that the resurrection of John 5:28-29 will lead to the judgment at the great white throne.

ACTS 24:14-15

Another passage having to do with the resurrection of the unjust is found in Acts 24:14:15. Paul writes, “…. I believe everything that agrees with the Law and that which is written in the Prophets, and I have the same hope in God as these men, that there will be a resurrection of both the righteous and the wicked”. Note Paul’s reference to the Law and the Prophets. The only reference I can find by the Old Testament prophets to the resurrection of the wicked is Daniel 12:1-2. That scripture has been discussed above. As we have seen, it refers to the great white throne judgment, a judgment of those who lived through the tribulation.

I PETER 4:5 AND 17

The third New Testament  passage that speaks of the judgment of the dead is in  I Peter 4:4-5 which reads, “They think it strange that you do not plunge with them into the same flood of dissipation, and they heap abuse on you. But they will have to give account to him who is ready to judge the living and the dead”. We must ask the question, “Who are the living and the dead that will be judged? “Note the contrast Peter makes between “they” and “you”. Obviously, the “they” are unbelievers and the “you” are believers. Are “they” the unbelievers of every dispensation, i.e. all mankind? If they are, when are they to be resurrected for judgment? That is to say, we are not told anywhere in the Bible of a resurrection of the unbelievers of all mankind, only of those who lived during the tribulation. I agree with Mr. Knoch’s statement quoted in an earlier section, the dead can not be judged, they must be raised for judgment. These once dead unbelievers who must “give account”, are those who must answer for what they have done. I believe that because the only resurrection of unbelievers is at the great white throne, and that the great white throne judgment is also the only judgment of deeds of the unbelievers, these spoken of by Peter are those who lived during the tribulation, and did not overcome.

While it is true that there is no mention of the tribulation in the context, it is also true that Peter’s first epistle was written to Israel. See 2:9, “But you are a chosen people, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, a people belonging to God ….”.(Compare Ex. 19:5-6). At the time that Peter wrote his epistles, Israel was looking for the immediate return of Christ. They expected to live through the time of “Jacob’s trouble”. The tribulation was very much in the minds of all believing Israelites.

V. Passages that seem to say that unbelievers will be raised unto judgment

Matthew 10:15

We read in Matt. 10:15, “Verily I say unto you, It shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom and Gomorrha in the day of judgment than for that city”.

There were three judgments that were yet future at the time these words were spoken, i.e. the judgment of the day of wrath, the judgment at the judgment seat of Christ, and the judgment at the great white throne. To which judgment did Christ refer in this verse? I believe there are two clues that will help us to answer  that question. The first clue is in the fact that there is no hint of resurrection in this context. And the second clue lies in the fact that the judgment of verse 15 is one of cities. The great white throne judgment will be one of individuals, not of cities.  But we know that cities will indeed be judged in the day of God’s wrath from such passages as Rev. 6:12-17 and chapter 18 of Revelation. I believe therefore, as we add these two clues together we are led to the conclusion that the judgment of Matt. 10:15 is the judgment of the day of God’s wrath. There is no resurrection until after the day of God’s wraththerefore this verse does not support the idea that unbelievers will be raised for judgment.

Matthew 12:35-36

We read in Matt. 12:35-36, “A good man out of the good treasure of the heart bringeth forth good things; and an evil man out of the evil treasure bringeth forth evil things. But I say unto you, That every idle word that men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment”.

Again, we must ask, to what judgment does this verse refer? Again, there is no hint of resurrection which leads one to discount the great white throne judgment.  And this is a judgment of individuals as opposed to the cities that will be judged in the day of God’s wrath. I believe therefore, that Matt. 12:36 refers to the judgment at the judgment seat of Christ. Let us consider the two passages that speak of the judgment seat of Christ.

Romans 14:10 reads, “But why dost thou judge thy brother? Or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? For we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ“. And II Cor. 5:10 reads, “For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad”. Note the phrase in II Cor. 5:10 “the things done in his body”. Let us compare that with Matt. 12:35, “A good man out of the good treasure of the heart bringeth forth good things; and an evil man out of the evil treasure bringeth forth evil things”. I believe there is in these two passages a correlation in that both speak of the things, good and bad, done in the body. Therefore, I believe that Matt. 12:36 speaks of the judgment of the judgment seat of Christ.

As we consider the judgment at the judgment seat of Christ it will become quite clear that unbelievers will not appear in that judgment. Note that Paul includes himself in this judgment. That tells us that the judgment at the judgment seat of Christ is a judgment of believers. But we read in Jn. 5:24, “…He that heareth My word, and believeth on Him That sent Me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation (Gr. “krisis”, i.e. judgment); but is passed from death unto life”. We learn from this that believers will not be judged.  There are no contradictions in the Word of God, therefore we must conclude that John 5 speaks of judgment with respect to salvation, whereas the judgment at the judgment seat of Christ is one of rewards. Obviously, unbelievers will not be judged with respect to rewards. Therefore, this verse does not support the idea of unbelievers being raised for judgment.

Matthew 12:41 and 42

We read in Matt. 12:41, “The men of Nineveh shall rise in judgment with this generation and shall condemn it because they repented at the preaching of Jonas…”.

The phrase “they repented at the preaching of Jonas” tells us that this verse contrasts believers with unbelievers, i.e. the men of Nineveh with those of the generation Christ was addressing. Let us first determine to which judgment this refers. Again, the three judgments that were yet future when these words were spoken were the judgment of the day of God’s wrath, the judgment at the judgment seat of Christ and the judgment of the great white throne.

Given that this verse speaks of a resurrection we may rule out the judgment of the day of God’s wrath. And given that unbelievers are included we may rule out the judgment at the judgment seat of Christ.  That is to say, in both passages that speak of the judgment seat of Christ, i.e. Rom. 14:10 and II Cor.5:10, Paul includes himself. That tells us that the judgment at the judgment seat of Christ will be for believers with respect to rewards.  Because believers will not be judged with respect to their salvation (see Jn. 5:24 quoted in the section above) the judgment of Matt. 12:41 cannot refer to the judgment seat of Christ. That leaves us with the judgment of the great white throne. But because believers, including, of course, the men of Nineveh, will be raised at the second coming of Christ, Matt. 12:41 cannot refer to the resurrection 1,000 years after His coming, because those believers will have already been raised.

That leaves us with the question of to which judgment does Matt. 12:41 refer. In order to answer that question we must consider the Greek preposition translated “with” in the phrase “shall rise in judgment with”. That Greek word is “meta”. “Meta’ is a very interesting word in that while it is generally translated “with” it is also translated, in a small portion of the times it is used, as “against”.  Let us consider just a few of those occurrences.  We read in Rev. 2:16, “Repent; or else I will come unto thee quickly, and will fight against (Gr. “meta”) them with the sword of My mouth”. Consider also Rev. 11:7 which reads, “….the beast that ascendeth out of the bottomless pit shall make war against (Gr, “meta”) them, and shall overcome them and kill them”. While it is true that “meta” is not generally translated “against”, I believe it is clear that the word does, at least at times, mean “against’.

We are now prepared to consider Matt. 12:41. I suggest that that verse should be translated, “The men of Nineveh shall rise in judgment against this generation, and shall condemn it…..”. I believe that the judgment referred to in this verse is that while believers will be raised from the dead at the second coming of Christ, unbelievers will be left in the grave because, as we read in Jn. 3:18, “he that believeth not is condemned already”.

In short, the very fact that unbelievers will not be raised because “he that believeth not is condemned already” is the judgment referred to in Matt. 12:41.  The same is true of verse 42 which also uses the Greek “meta”.

VI. Resurrection in the Old Testament

Other than the picture of the resurrection of our Lord given by the experience of Jonas in the belly of the leviathan, I can find only two scriptures in the Old Testament which refer to resurrection. (It is therefore perhaps understandable why some who lived while our Lord was on earth did not believe in resurrection.)  One of those passages is in Daniel 12, which we have already discussed.  The other is in Ezek. 37:12-14. This passage speaks of the resurrection of Israel.  We read in verse 11, “Then he said to me: Son of man, these bones are the whole house of Israel. …. Therefore prophesy and say to them: This is what the Sovereign Lord says: ‘O My people, I am going to open your graves and bring you up from them”. If we take the phrase, the “whole house of Israel” out of context we may be drawn to the erroneous conclusion that it refers to the unfaithful as well as the faithful.  But let us continue with the very next phrase, where we read, “I will bring you back to the land of Israel”.

This phrase is important in that it tells us that those who will be resurrected will be brought into the land promised by God to Israel  But as we shall see as we continue in our study, only believers will be allowed in the land for the millennial reign of Christ.  That is to say, resurrection is promised to only those of Israel who will be allowed into the land for the millennium, i.e. only believers.  Unbelievers will not be allowed entrance and they will not be resurrected.  (The exception in terms of resurrection is, of course, those unbelievers of Israel who worship the beast during the tribulation who will be raised for judgment at the great white throne.) As we continue, we will see that God purges His people of unbelievers, they will not be allowed entrance into the land of Israel.  This purging is of those of Israel who will be alive at His coming, there is no hint of resurrection in these passages.

We read in Matthew 8:11-12, “I say to you that many will come from the east and the west, and will take their places at the feast with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven.  But the subjects of the kingdom will be thrown outside, into the darkness, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth”.

The “subjects of the kingdom” of verse 12 refers to Israel.  The phrase “kingdom of heaven” is limited in scope, and refers to Christ’s 1,000 year reign over Israel in the land. Those “thrown out” of the kingdom of heaven will be thrown out of the land of Israel to live in the Gentile nations. (For proof of these statements please see the paper on this web-site The Kingdom of Heaven.)

Matthew 13:37-43 includes the explanation of the parable of the weeds.  Verse 38b, “the weeds are the sons of the evil one”.  Verse 39b, “The harvest is at the end of the age”. Verse 41, “The Son of Man will send out His angels, and they will weed out of His kingdom everything that causes sin and all who do evil”.  What will happen to those being weeded out?  Verse 42, They will be thrown into the fiery furnace…” , that is, they will be thrown out of  the land of Israel, while those in the land will be enjoying millennial blessings.

The “weeding out” of this parable is what Ezekiel refers to in 20:35-38. “I will bring you into the desert of the nations and there, face to face I will execute judgment upon you.  As I judged your fathers in the desert of the land of Egypt, so I will judge you, declares the Sovereign Lord.  I will take note of you as you pass under my staff, and I will bring you into the bond of the covenant.  I will purge you of those who revolt and rebel against me.  Although I will bring them out of the land where they are living, yet they will not enter the land of Israel….“.

A word of clarification of Ezek. 20:40 is in order.  The NIV has, “…..the entire house of Israel will serve me there”.  That would suggest that all Israel, including unbelievers will be allowed into the land.  But the Hebrew-English Interlinear has, “The entire house of Israel, all of them in the land will serve me there”. The KJV also includes this phrase.  This is consistent with all the other scriptures that concern the gathering of Israel for the millennial blessings, i.e. only the faithful are allowed into the land and therefore, only the faithful will serve Him there.

In order not to create any confusion, we should consider Ezek 36 in this discussion of who is allowed entrance into the land. Ezek. 36:24-27, “For I will take you out of the nations; I will gather you from all the countries and bring you back into your own land. ……..You will live in the land I gave your forefathers, you will be my people and I will be your God”.  Here we read that Israel will be in the land, but in Ezek. 20 we read that some would not be allowed entrance into the land. Let us consider this apparent contradiction.

We have seen in two passages in Matthew (and there are several more) that some of Israel will be “thrown out” of the land; they will not be allowed entrance into the kingdom of Heaven. We have also seen in Ezek. 20 that the unfaithful will be brought out from where they had been scattered, but they will not be allowed entrance into the land. We must conclude therefore, that the promises of Ezek. 37 are not given to unfaithful Israel, they are given to the  faithful of Israel only.  If we do not recognize that truth we are faced with the unthinkable conclusion that there is a contradiction in God’s perfect Word. They are not all Israel that are of Israel and the unfaithful will be cut off from their people and will not be counted as Israel.  (See Rom. 11:17a and 23.)

Let us also consider the following scriptures that tell us that only the faithful of Israel will enter the land.

Psalms 37:9, “For evil men will be cut off, but those who hope in the Lord will inherit the land”. Ps. 37:22, “those the Lord blesses will inherit the land, but those He curses will be cut off”. Ps. 37:34, “Wait for the Lord and keep his way.  He will exalt you to possess the land; when the wicked are cut off, you will see it.”

Prov. 2:21-22, “but the wicked will be cut off from the land, and the unfaithful will be torn from it.”

We are now ready to draw some conclusions about who will be included in the resurrection of Ezekiel 37.  Because the resurrected of Ezek. 37 will be in the land for the millennial reign, we must conclude that they are believers, as unbelievers are not allowed entrance.  That is to say, the unbeliever is not included in the resurrection of Ezek. 37.

If unbelievers of Israel will not not be raised, and I believe they will not be, then they will not inherit resurrection life. Therefore, there is at least one company that can not be included in a “universal salvation”. In my opinion, therefore, this is one more piece of evidence from Scripture that universal salvation is not taught in God’s Word.

VII. PASSAGES THAT SEEM TO TEACH UNIVERSAL SALVATION

PSALM 22:27-29

“All the ends of the earth will remember and turn to the Lord; and all the families of the nations will bow down before him. For dominion belongs to the Lord and he rules over the nations. All the rich of the earth will feast and worship; all who go down to the dust will kneel before him- those who cannot keep themselves alive”. The phrase, “all who go down to the dust will kneel before him” suggests to those who believe in universal salvation, that all will be resurrected in order to worship. There are however, two things wrong with that conclusion.

1) This is obviously a Psalm which looks forward to the millennial reign for its fulfillment. Note the phrases, “nations will bow down before him”, and “he rules over the nations”. But the only resurrection that the Bible mentions as taking place before the millennium is of those in Christ, i.e. believers (see I Thess. 4:16). Some unbelievers will be raised to be judged at the great white throne, but that is not until after the millennial reign, (see Rev. 20:5).

2) The NIV Hebrew Interlinear has literally, “all of one going down of dust”. In other words, “all who are dying”. That explains the phrase “those who cannot keep themselves alive”. Therefore, I believe that we must conclude that because there is no resurrection of the unbeliever until after the millennial reign, that this passage does not refer to those who have already died and will be resurrected, but to all that are alive, but dying.

JOHN 12:32

“But I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to myself.” It is abundantly evident that our Lord has not “drawn all men” to Himself. Therefore, if “all men” means everyone who ever lived, a resurrection of unbelievers is a necessity. But, apart from the resurrection of those who lived in the time of the tribulation and will be raised for the judgment at the great white throne, there is no resurrection of unbelievers. How then are we to understand Christ’s statement that he would draw all men to Himself?

The key to understanding John 12:32 is in John 6, verses 37, 39 and 44.”All that the Father gives me will come to me…” (John 6:37).”And this is the will of him who sent me, that I shall lose none of all that he has given me.“(John 6:39).”No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him”. (John 6:44).

There is, of course, no contradiction between Christ saying that He will draw all men to Himself and the plain fact that not all men have been drawn to Him. Christ will draw all men that the Father has given Him. Some men will die without having accepted the free gift of salvation. Because there is no universal resurrection of the unbeliever spoken of in the Bible, those unbelievers will never be drawn to Christ.

ROMANS 5:15-19

Rom. 5:15-19, “(……. For if through the offence of one, many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man Jesus Christ, hath abounded to many. 16) and not as it was -by one that sinned, so is the gift: For the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification. 17)  For if by one man’s offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life-by One, Jesus Christ). 18) Therefore, as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of One the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. 19) for as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of One, shall many be made righteous”.

Let us consider this passage verse by verse. The first thing to note is the fact that in verse 15 Paul speaks of “many” being dead because of Adam’s sin, and of the grace of God being shown to “many”. The word “many” does not mean the same as the word “all”. We must bear in mind that Paul speaks of the many in this context. So even though all men do die, the subject of this passage is not “all men”, the subject of this passage is “the many”. 

Of whom is Paul  speaking? Who are “the many” to which God’s grace abounds? Those questions are answered in verse 17 where we read “they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life”. This entire context is about those who ” receive the gift of righteousness”. Who receives the gift of righteousness? That question is answered in Rom. 4:3, “Abraham believed God and it was counted unto him as righteousness”. In other words, those who believe God receive the gift of righteousness. Unbelievers, by definition do not believe God and therefore they do not receive the gift of righteousness.

Let us continue our study of this passage with verses 18-19. “For as by one man’s disobedience  many were made sinners, so by the obedience of  One shall  many be made righteous”. Again, all men do indeed sin, but that is not the subject of this verse or of this context. The subject is “many” who will receive the gift of righteousness.

 So verses 15 and 17 tell us of the “the many” (i.e. not all men but the men of this context, i.e. believers). Those who believe in universal salvation would say that in verse 18 Paul is saying that all men will be justified. Let us look at the logic of that conclusion.

If Paul is saying in verse 18 that all men would be justified, why would he speak of the “many” (i.e. a limited number of “all men”)  in the other two verses (i.e. 15 and 17)? That is to say, if Paul is saying in this passage that all men are justified, there would be absolutely no reason to speak of some men being justified, because some men are included in the phrase, “all men”. Let me clarify that with an every day example. “The entire school went to the picnic and the fourth grade went to the picnic”. If the entire school went to the picnic, then there would be no need to speak of the fourth grade going. So too, if all men will be justified, there would be no need to mention the fact that  the” many”, i.e. some men, will be justified Therefore, I believe that we must consider verse 18 in the context and conclude that the “all men” of verse 18 refers to the same limited number of men which is the subject of this passage.

Let us consider the suggestion that where Paul speaks of “the abundance of grace” in verse 17 that “abundance of grace” implies a greater number than those who died through the one man’s offence. That doesn’t make sense because there will not be more saved than had died. That is to say, we are saved from the grave. There cannot be more saved than are in the grave. Furthermore, note this verse says, “much more they which receive abundance of grace….”. One must receive it and not every person does receive it, they refuse the gift by their lack of faith.

ROMANS 9:19 AND I TIMOTHY 2:4

Rom. 9:19 reads, “…..for who resists His will?” But I Tim.2:4 reads, “This is good, and pleases God our Savior, who wills all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth” . I believe that every word in the Bible is inspired by God, the Holy Spirit. So when the Greek words translated “will(s)” is different in one verse than it is another, that, in my opinion, is meaningful. The Greek word translated “will” in Romans 9:19 is “boutomai” and means “intentions”. Whereas, the Greek word translated “wills”, in I Tim. 2:4 is “thelo” and means “to wish or desire”. So in Romans what is implied by Paul’s question is that no one can resist God’s intentions. But in I Timothy Paul says that God desires all men to be saved. What God desires is not always what He intends to accomplish. In the case of salvation, He offers it as a gift, but it is clear that that gift is not accepted by all men, thus His desire, in the case of all men being saved, is not fulfilled.

ROMANS 11:32

“For God has bound all men over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all”. The eleventh chapter of Romans has been quoted by some in an effort to prove that one can lose his salvation: it has also been quoted by others in an effort to prove that all men will be saved. I believe that the exponents of both doctrines have taken this passage out of context, but I will limit my comments to the doctrine of universal salvation.

Let us try to determine just what Paul’s message is in Romans 11. Verses 17-18 reads, “If some of the branches have been broken off, and you, though a wild olive shoot, have been grafted in among the others and now share in the nourishing sap from the olive root, do not boast over those branches”. This passage does not speak of salvation, but of dispensational standing. If we fail to see that, we are forced to come to the erroneous conclusion that one can lose their salvation.

Consider the very first verse of this chapter, “I ask then, Did God reject his people? By no means!…” Paul is writing of Israel as a nation and their dispensational standing at the time of the writing of Romans, which was as God’s chosen people. God could not reject His people in terms of salvation. To read that into this chapter is to do a great disservice to Paul’s message.

Consider verse 22, “Consider therefore the kindness and sternness of God: sternness to those who fail, but kindness to you, provided that you continue in his kindness. Otherwise, you also will be cut off. “Here too, we must understand that this has nothing to do with salvation, or again, we are forced to the erroneous conclusion that a child of God can lose his salvation.

Now that we have seen that Romans 11 has nothing to do with salvation, but with the dispensational standing of Israel and the nations, let us come to verses 28-32. Paul tells us in verse 30 that the Gentiles have received mercy “as a result of their (Israel’s) disobedience..”. What mercy is he writing about in this passage? Again, to say that it is the mercy in granting all men salvation is to take this passage out of its dispensational context. I believe that the mercy Paul had in mind, is the mercy that God bestowed on the Gentiles in preaching the gospel to them (verse 30). We must bare in mind that before Paul became an apostle of God to the Gentiles, Gentiles were “without God and without hope in the world” (Eph. 2:12). That is to say, Gentiles could receive the gift of resurrection life before Paul, but they had never had the privilege of having been preached to as Gentiles, before Paul became the “apostle to the uncircumcision”.

What was the mercy that God bestowed on Israel? It was that Gentiles were being grafted in, in order to make Israel jealous. This would hopefully, bring all Israel to accepting their risen Messiah. In short, Israel was disobedient and God sent His message to the Gentiles in order to provoke Israel to jealousy (Romans 10:19). In so doing, God showed mercy to the Gentiles and mercy to Israel. That mercy is not that He granted the gift of salvation to all, but that He sent His message to the nations (that was His mercy to the Gentiles) and by so doing hoped to make Israel jealous (that was His mercy to Israel).

I CORINTHIANS 15:22-23

I Corinthians 15:22 reads, “So as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive…”. Does this verse say that all are in Adam and that all are in Christ? It is obvious that all are in Adam, but are all in Christ? The answer to that question is found in Romans 16:7, “Salute Andronicus and Junia……who also were in Christ before me“. It is clear that all men are in Adam by natural birth. But if all men were in Christ by natural birth then how could Paul be in Christ later than some? That is to say, Paul was not “in Christ” as early as Andronicus was in Christ, which means that there was a time when  Paul was not in Christ. But Paul became “in Christ” when he believed. We must conclude therefore, that because not all men are believers, not all men are in Christ.

Mr. Knoch teaches that verse 24 refers to “the balance of mankind”, in the word “end”. “Then cometh the end when He shall deliver up the kingdom of God”. His reasoning is that the great white throne judgment is at the “end”, and that is when the resurrection of all the unjust of mankind will take place. Therefore, according to Mr. Knoch, verse 24 speaks of the resurrection of all mankind.

In my opinion, that is reading into Scripture what is not there. That is to say, verse 24 does not mention resurrection, it speaks only of what will happen at the end. Also, as I have shown in the section of this paper on the great white throne, there is not going to be a resurrection of the unjust of all mankind, therefore I do not agree that verse 24 teaches the resurrection of “the balance of mankind” as Mr. Knoch suggests.

The Bible tells us that Christ rose from the dead after three days and three nights. The Bible tells us that those in Him will be raised at His coming. But there is no mention, (other than the white throne judgment – which is a resurrection of a very specific group who lived during a very limited time) of a general resurrection of the unjust anywhere in the Bible, and especially not in verse 24 of the passage under consideration .

I CORINTHIANS 15:25

“For He must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. “We must assume that all existing enemies are meant by the phrase “all his enemies”. The dead, as we have seen in the section above on death, do not exist. In order for them to exist they must be resurrected. And, there is no place in the Bible that tells of a universal resurrection of all unbelieving dead from every age, therefore, in general terms, the dead do not exist.

II CORINTHIANS 5:10

“For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad”.

We must note that in this passage Paul is addressing his remarks to saved people. Note verse 5, where we read, “..…God, who also hath given unto us the earnest of the spirit”. Eph. 1:13-14 also speaks of this “earnest”.”….. in whom also after ye believed ye were sealed with that holy spirit of promise, which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession unto the praise of His glory”. The earnest of our inheritance is that which guarantees the believer resurrection life. It is given only to believers, never to unbelievers. This fact alone is enough Scriptural evidence to prove that Paul is addressing believers. Verse 7 also indicates that Paul is addressing believers, “For we walk by faith, not by sight”. Therefore, I believe that we may say without hesitation, that believers will appear before the judgment seat of Christ.

Further, the paper on the judgment seat of Christ gives further evidence that it will be only believers who will be judged and that only in respect to rewards.  That paper will also prove from Scripture that the judgment at the judgment seat of Christ is not the judgment at the great white throne, as many believe it to be.

II CORINTHIANS 5:18-19

“All this is from God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ and gave us the ministry of reconciliation: that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting men’s sins against them…”. As we have seen in the first section of this paper, God is not counting sins against anyone. But that does not mean that all men are saved. Salvation is a gift that must be accepted, it is not unilateral as is reconciliation.(Please see the section of this paper, The Difference Between Reconciliation And Salvation.

PHILIPPIANS 2:9-10

“Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth”. In my opinion, we must assume that only the living are included in this statement that “every knee shall bow”. As we have seen in the section on death, dead people do not exist and therefore can not bow the knee. And because there is no general resurrection of the unbeliever, we may not assume that the unbelieving dead will rise to bow the knee without Scriptural evidence.

COLOSSIANS 1:19-20

“For God was pleased to have all his fullness dwell in him, and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether things on earth or things in heaven, by making peace through his blood shed on the cross.” As we have seen in the first section of this paper, Christ has indeed reconciled all things to Himself through His shed blood, but reconciliation is not at all the same as salvation.

I Timothy 4:9-10

This is a faithful saying and worthy of all acceptation. For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.“

What did Paul mean by the phrase. “specially of those that believe”? Salvation is being resurrected from the dead. One is either resurrected or not resurrected. Therefore one is either saved from the grave or not saved from the grave. How can one be especially saved? I believe that we must consider this passage in its context.

To begin with, this passage is not in the context of doctrinal teaching. The context is Paul’s advice to Timothy on how Timothy should conduct himself. Therefore, we should not expect to find a doctrine not otherwise substantiated in Scripture.

Secondly, is Paul’s point that God saves all men? Or could Paul have meant something else when he wrote that God is the “Saviour of all men”? Given that the phrase “specially of those that believe” makes no sense if we assume that all men are saved, and that this phrase comes in the context of Paul giving Timothy advice on how he should conduct himself, I believe that he meant that indeed God is the Saviour of all men who believe. This explains the phrase that follows, “specially of those that believe.” God is the Saviour of all who will be saved because there is no other by Whom any might be saved. But we do not read anywhere in God’s Word that all men will be saved by Him, because not all men do accept the gift of salvation.

In other words. I believe that Paul is not saying that all men are saved by God. I believe that what Paul is saying is that it is by God that all men might be saved, i.e. all men who believe. But because all men do not believe, and they do not accept the gift of salvation, not all men are saved.

I PETER 3:19-20

“…He was put to death in the body but made alive in the spirit, through which He also went and preached to the spirits in prison who disobeyed long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built”. Who are the spirits in prison, to which Peter refers? Are they all the dead that ever lived? No, they are those spirits “who disobeyed God long ago”. When? During the time of Noah. II Peter 2:4 also speaks of these imprisoned spirits that were in the time of Noah.” For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but sent them to hell (Greek, tartartoo), putting them into gloomy dungeons to be held for judgment…”. Jude 6 tells us a bit more of these spirits, “And the angels who did not keep their positions of authority but abandoned their own home (should be ‘bodies’) – these He has kept in darkness, bound with everlasting chains for judgment on the great day”.

Let us turn to Genesis chapter 6 for more information as to who these spirits are that will be preached to. “The sons of God saw that the daughters of men were beautiful, and they married any of them they chose”, (Gen. 6:2). I believe that if we connect all the New Testament verses with Genesis 6 we can readily see that fallen angels had taken the daughters of men for their wives. This was, of course, not what God had intended, and these angels are being imprisoned in tartartoo for judgment.

Peter tells us that they were preached to. For the sake of argument let us say that they may have the opportunity to repent. Even if they do, we can not say that I Peter 3:19-20 speaks of all mankind, it speaks of fallen angels who sinned at the time of Noah.

I PETER 4 :6

“For this is the reason the gospel was preached even to those who are [now] dead…”. There is no “now” in the manuscripts, but there is nothing in this verse that suggests that the preaching was being done while they were dead. This goes against the Scriptural definition of death, wherein there is silence. The gospel was preached to living beings before they died.

SCRIPTURES SUGGESTED BY REV. BILL MC GINNES

The passages quoted above are passages that have been quoted by several of those who believe in the doctrine of universal salvation. I would like to be as thorough as possible, and therefore I will comment on the passages given by Rev. Bill Mc Ginnis on his web-site that are not quoted by others.

THE GREEK USE OF THE DEFINITE ARTICLE

Mark 3:28

“Verily I say unto you, ‘All sins shall be forgiven unto the sons of men, and blasphemies wherewith soever they shall blaspheme”. The definite article “the” limits the noun. In this case it limits the noun “men” to believers.

Luke 2:10 

“And the angel said unto them ‘Fear not: for behold, I bring you good tidings of great joy, which shall be to all people, for unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which  is Christ the Lord’”.

The Greek texts have “which shall be to all the people”. The definite article “the” limits “people” to those who accept God’s salvation.

Ephesians 1:10

“…in the dispensation of the fulness of times He might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven and which are on earth; even in Him”. The phrase “all things” is a translation of the Greek “ta panta”. The word “ta” is the definite article. The clearest use of “ta panta” is found in Col. 3:8 where we will see that it doesn’t mean everything, but that it limits “all” to the context. Col. 3:8 reads, “But now ye also put off all these (ta panta); anger, wrath, malice, blasphemy…..”. In this verse the phrase “all these” obviously does not refer to everything in the universe, but is limited to those things mentioned in the context. With that in mind, let us return to our consideration of Eph. 1:10.

In verse 10 we see that “the all things” will be gathered together …in Christ”. Verses 12-13 explain why “the all things” are to be gathered together. “That we should be to the praise of His glory….”. Verses 12b and 13 explain who should be gathered for the purpose of His glory. “who first trusted in God. In Whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of you salvation: in Whom also after ye believed, ye were sealed with the holy spirit of promise”. It is believers who will be gathered together for the praise of His glory. The unbelieving dead, as we have already seen in the sections above, cannot be counted among “the all things” because once they die they will no longer exist.

THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN GOD’S WILL AND HIS DESIRE

Matthew 6:10

“Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done in earth as it is in heaven”. There are four different Greek words translated “will” or “wish”. The one used in this verse is “thelo”. The Companion Bible definition of “thelo” is, “means to wish or desire, and is the emotional element which leads to the consequent action”. If the Holy Spirit meant to say that God wills something in the sense that what He wills will be accomplished, He would have used the Greek word “boulami”. The Companion Bible definition of that word is, “though it sometimes means much more, yet has reference to the result of thelo; viz. the deliberate determination, whether in accordance with or contrary to, the original wish or impulse”. In other words, when God’s will is accomplished the Greek word “boulami”is used. But when something is His desire but He does not determine it to be accomplished, “thelo” is used. The Holy Spirit used two different words to express two very different concepts. If we are to be faithful to His Word, we must take those words seriously.

Let us allow the Bible to define the Greek word translated “will”.

Because the meaning of words are determined by their usage, let me give a few examples of how this Greek word is used. The usage will, in my opinion, substantiate the definition quoted in the Companion Bible.

We read in Matt. 7:12, “Therefore all things whatsoever ye would that men should do to you, do ye even so to them…..”. One can only desire what man will do unto them.

Matt. 12:38 reads, “Then certain of the scribes and of the Pharisees answered, saying, “Master, we would see a sign from Thee’”. These men were saying that they desire a sign.

Let us also consider the noun “thelema”. The word “thelema” is defined as, “must also be noted, with the same distinction from boulema, as denoting the desire rather than the resolve“. Again, let us see how it is used.

“Thelema” is used in these verses: I Cor. 16:12, “As touching our brother Apollos, I greatly desired him to come unto you with the brethren; but his will was not at all to come at this time…..”.

Eph. 2:3, “….fulfilling the desires of the flesh….”.

The prayer, therefore is that what ever God desires will be accomplished on earth. But God has chosen to give man a free choice and sometimes even God’s desires are not accomplished. His will however, (i.e. as opposed to His desire) will be accomplished in His time.

This passage should be understood in the same way as the difference between Rom. 9:19 and I Tim. 2:4 discussed above.  That is to say, God’s desire is not always fulfilled, but His determined will is.

I Tim. 2:4

“Who will have all men to be saved and come unto the knowledge of the truth”. Here too, the Greek word used by God, the Holy Spirit is “thelo”. The argument is that if the all-powerful God wills something, it must come to fruition. While that is certainly true, the problem with that argument is that because God desires all men to be saved, it does not mean that He will save all men. Again, because God has given man free will, His desires are not always accomplished. And again, we must observe the words that the Holy Spirit uses. (Please see the paragraphs above in this section).

SCRIPTURES TAKEN OUT OF CONTEXT

Psalm 2:8

“Ask of Me, and I shall give Thee the heathen for Thine inheritance, and the uttermost parts of the earth for Thy possession”. The Hebrew word translated “heathen” is “goy” and is sometimes translated “heathen” and some times translated “nations”. The context tells us which the Holy Spirit had in mind. It is clear from Ps. 2:9 that nations is what we are to understand. “Thou shalt break them with a rod of iron; Thou shalt dash them in pieces like a potter’s vessel”. This passage is telling us that Christ will rule the nations with a rod of iron. It is the nations that He will inherit, it is nations that He will break and dash, not the individuals. Because nations are not saved unto eternal life, we must conclude that this passage does not speak of resurrection life. It speaks of the manner in which Christ will rule the nations in the millennium.

Ezekiel 33:11

“Say unto them, ‘As I live, saith the Lord God, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but that the wicked turn from his way and live: turn ye, turn ye from your evil ways; for why will ye die, O house of Israel?” This verse has to do with death, the end of man’s natural life, not with resurrection life. God is saying that He would rather have man turn from his wicked ways. It has absolutely nothing to do with resurrection life. To suggest that because God would like to see man turn from his wicked ways means that He will save all men unto resurrection life is not supported by this verse, or any other.

Ezekiel 18:4

“Behold, all souls are Mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is Mine; the soul that sinneth, it shall die”. Let us determine the point of this verse by looking at its context.

Verse two of this chapters reads, “What mean ye that use this proverb…..’The fathers have eaten sour grapes, and the children’s teeth are set on edge?”. The proverb seems to suggest that the sons inherit the punishment of what their fathers had done. But the Lord goes on in verses 5-9 to explain that each one is responsible for his own soul. We read in verse 5, “But if a man be just, and do that which is lawful and right (verses 6-8 expound on what is lawful and right) and in verse 9 we read, “Hath walked in My statutes, and hath kept My judgments, to deal truly: he is just, he shall surely live, saith the Lord”.

Verse 9 tells us who will live. I believe this refers to living in resurrection. But it is not given to everyone, it is given to those who walk in His statutes and walk in His judgments and deals truly.

Coming back to the meaning of verse 4 where we read that “all souls are Mine”. Does that mean that everyone will be saved? I don’t believe that is the point of the context. The point is that he who lives a just life will live in resurrection, and he who does not live a just life, will not live in resurrection. In other words, the point is that if a father does not live a just life, it does not follow that the son, who may live a just life, will not live in resurrection. Why? Because each person is God’s and will be judged according to how he has led his life, not on how his father has led it.

A note of clarification might be helpful here. We read in Ex. 20:5 that the sins of the father will be “visited” upon the children unto the third and fourth generation”. This verse comes in the context of the old covenant. It had to do with the promise of earthly blessings if Israel obeyed and earthly punishments if they disobeyed. We read in Lev. 26:3-13, “If ye walk in My statutes and keep My commandments, and do them, then I will give you rain in due season…….. I will give you peace in the land.…and ye shall chase your enemies and they shall fall before you…..and make you fruitful and multiply“. In verses 14-39 however, we read, “But if you will not hearken to Me….I will appoint you terror, ….ye shall sow your seed in vain…..you shall be slain before your enemies….I will also send wild beasts among you…..I will bring a sword upon you…….I will make your cities waste……”.

It is clear in Lev. 26 that it is earthly, temporal blessings and punishments that are in view, not eternal life. So there is no contradiction between the Lord telling Israel that He will visit the sins of the fathers upon the sons, and Him telling Israel that resurrection life will be given to all who are just, regardless of what their fathers did. The sins of the father will be visited on their sons in terms of  earthly, temporal punishments. But resurrection life is based on the life and faith of each person, regardless of the lives of their fathers.

Acts 3:19-21

“Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord; and He shall send Jesus Christ, Which before was preached unto you: Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all His holy prophets since the world began”.

Note that in verse 12 we learn to whom Peter addressed his remarks, “Ye men of Israel”. Not also that “the times of refreshing” refers to a very specific period in the history of God’s chosen nation, Israel. It refers to the millennial reign of Christ when all the promises of national blessings will be fulfilled. How do we know that? The Greek word translated “refreshing” occurs only once in the New Testament but a related word, translated “restore” occurs in Acts 1:6, where the disciples asked the Lord if He would at that time restore the kingdom to Israel. In other words, Acts 3:19-21 is in answer to the question posed in Acts 1:6. Peter was preaching that the kingdom, i.e. the millennial reign, will be restored when Israel repents which would have resulted in our Lord’s return.

It is clear from such passages as Ps. 37:9, that “the times of refreshing” is not a time when all men will be saved. “For evil men will be cut off, but those who hope in the Lord will inherit the land”. It will be during the millennium that Israel will inherit the land. But, as this verse tells us some, i.e. “evil men”, will not inherit the land. In this case the contrast is between inheriting the land and not inheriting the land. That is to say, that while it is true that the phrase “cut off” sometimes means to put to death, it is equally true that it sometimes means to be cut off from one’s people. The context will always tell us which is the way the Holy Spirit intends for us to understand it. In this case because “cut off” is put in contrast to inheriting the land, it is clear that some will not inherit the land. That means that evil men who will be alive at the time of the second coming will live outside the land of Israel during the millennial reign of Christ. That is why we read in Psalm 2, quoted above, that He will rule with a rod of iron and dash the nations to pieces, etc.

Note also Prov. 2:21-22, “ For the upright will live in the land, and the blameless will remain in it, but the wicked will be cut off from the land”. And  Ps. 37:34 reads, “Wait for the Lord and keep His way.  He will exalt you to possess the land: when the wicked are cut off, you will see it”. Also Ps. 37:22, “Those the Lord blesses will inherit the land, but those he curses will be cut off”.

As the paper on this web-site The Kingdom of Heaven will show, only those in the land of Israel for the millennial reign will have eternal life. May I also remind the reader that unbelieving Israel will not be raised (see the section in this paper on Old Testament prophecies about resurrection).

The phrase “times of refreshing” refers to the millennial reign of Christ at which time not all will be saved.

Ps. 22:27

“All the ends of the world shall remember and turn unto the Lord: and all the kindreds of the nations shall worship before Thee”. This verse is obviously speaking of the millennial reign of Christ. But we are specifically told in I Cor. 15:23  that believers, i.e. those “in Christ”,  will be raised at the  second coming of Christ, i.e. before the millennium. The only time we read of a resurrection of unbelievers is after the millennium.  Therefore, Ps. 2:27 cannot refer to unbelievers who will be raised before the millennium.

But let us also consider the immediate context? Consider verse 29, “…..and none can keep alive his own soul”. That implies that some will die.

Isaiah 2:2

“And it shall come to pass in the last days, that the mountain of the Lord’s house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it“.

Here again, this is obviously a millennial prophecy and no unbeliever will be raised before the millennium. Further, it is not every person in every nation that will come to Jerusalem to worship God. The note in the Companion Bible attests to that. It reads, “all nations. Figure of speech Synecdoche (of Genus) =many from all nations“.

Daniel 7:14

“And there was given Him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve Him; His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom that which shall not be destroyed”. While it is true that the representatives of all nations will serve Him and even come to Jerusalem to worship Him, it is also true that they will not all come willingly. I will quote only one verse from Is. 60 Is. 60:12 reads, “For the nation or kingdom that will not serve you will perish; it will be utterly ruined”. Because some come only to avoid the ruin of their nation, the fact that all will, as Dan. 7:14 tells us, come to serve Him does not mean that all are believers. If they are not all believers, they are not all saved.

Isaiah 57:16

“For I will not contend for ever, neither will I be always wroth: for the spirit should fail before Me, and the souls which I have made”. But the preceding verse explains with whom God will not contend. Is. 57:15, “For thus saith the high and lofty One That inhabiteth eternity, whose name is Holy; I dwell in the high and holy place, with him also that is of a contrite and humble spirit to revive the spirit of the humble, and to revive the heart of the contrite ones”. Far from this passage teaching that all men are saved, it teaches that it is only the contrite and humble of spirit who will dwell with God. The others will not, therefore, they will not be saved.

Jeremiah 31:33-34

“Behold, the days come saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah: Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt: which My covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord. But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put My law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be My People. And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour and every man his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord’: for they shall all know Me, from the least of them unto the greatest of the, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more‘”.

There are two things wrong with the idea that this teaches universal salvation. 1) The new covenant will be given to “the house of Israel and the house of Judah”. That is to say, it is not made with all of mankind. 2) As we learned in the section above on Old Testament prophecies concerning resurrection, the unbeliever of Israel will not be raised. Therefore, it is clear that the new covenant will be made with the believers of Israel, and will not include unbelievers of Israel.

Deuteronomy 7:14

“Thou shalt be blessed above all people; there shall not be male or female barren among you, or among your cattle“. The second part of this verse, “among your cattle”, makes it clear that the blessing spoken of in this verse is not the blessing of eternal life. That is to say, the barrenness or lack thereof has absolutely nothing to do with eternal life. Therefore it is earthly, temporal blessings not salvation that is in view here.

If we look at the preceding verse we will see that this is part of the old covenant whereby God promised Israel that if they obey, He will bless them with earthly, temporal blessings, but if they disobey, He will punish them with earthly punishments (see Lev. 26). Verse 12 reads, “wherefore it shall come to pass, if ye hearken to these judgments, and keep, and do them, that the Lord thy God shall keep unto thee the covenant and the mercy which He sware unto thy fathers”.

Not only is salvation not in the context, but it is also clear that this was a covenant made with Israel, not with all mankind. That covenant was that if Israel obeyed the law, God would bless them with earthly blessings but if they disobeyed, God would punish them with earthly punishments (see Lev. 26). Therefore, we may conclude that on two counts, this does not speak of eternal salvation for all mankind.

Micah 7:18

“Who is a God like unto Thee, That pardoneth iniquity, and passeth by the transgression of the remnant of His heritage: He retaineth not His anger for ever, because He deilghteth in mercy”. The context will show that this verse has nothing to do with eternal salvation, it has to do with the attack of Israel by Syria and Babylon which led to the seventy year captivity of Israel. Note verse 12 and 13, “In that day also he shall come even to thee from Assyria, and from the fortified cities, and from the fortress even to the river……..Notwithstanding the land shall be desolate because of them that dwell therein, for the fruit of their doings”.

Verses 16-17 speak of the time when God will forgive Israel their sins and bring back the remnant of His heritage again to their own land. “The nations shall see and be confounded at all their (Israel’s) might; they shall lay their hand upon their mouth, their ears shall be deaf. They shall lick the dust like a serpent, they shall move out of their holes like worms of the earth, they shall be afraid of the Lord our God, and shall fear because of Thee”. Is it any wonder then that after the great sins that led Israel into captivity and after the Lord brings the remnant back to their own land Micah says in verse 18, “Who is a God like unto Thee, That pardoneth iniquity, and passeth by the transgression of the remnant of His heritage: He retaineth not His anger for ever, because He delighteth in mercy”.

Acts 10:10-15

I will not quote this entire passage as it is quite well known by most. Suffice it to say that it is the account of Peter’s dream of “a certain vessel” (verse 11) that was “let down to earth”. Mr. McGinnis uses this passage to say that “all men came down from heaven” and that “all will be drawn up again into heaven”. To be sure, as we learn in verse 28 where Peter explained what he had learned from his dream, the beasts of his dream did represent men. “……but God hath showed me that I should not call any man common or unclean”. So we have Peter having a dream in which he was told by God that he should call no man unclean. Is that the context in which one may conclude that all men are saved? I do not believe it is. Let us examine the context so that we may determine just what the message was that God had for Peter. Was that message that all men will be saved, or was it that Gentiles will hear the gospel because God is no respecter of persons?

In verses 23-26 we read that Peter, after his dream, went to see Cornelius, a Gentile, and Cornelius explained the vision he had while praying. Peter’ s response is recorded in verse 34, “Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, ‘Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons; but in every nation he that feareth Him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with Him’”.

Later, Peter gave the following account to the council at Jerusalem of his experience recorded in Acts 10. So we read in Acts 15:7-9, “…..Peter rose up, and said unto them, ‘Men and brethren ye know how that a good while ago God made choice among us, that the Gentiles by my mouth should hear the word of the gospel, and believe.  And God Which knoweth the hearts, bare them witness, giving them the holy ghost, even as He did unto us, and put no difference between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith”.

I believe that the context shows that the point of Peter’s dream was that Peter should call no man unclean and that the Gentiles should hear the gospel because “God is no respector of persons”. The context does not, in my opinion, allow for the conclusion suggested by Mr. Mc Ginnis, that Peter’s dream meant that all men will ascend into heaven.

John 17:2

“As Thou hast given Him power over all flesh, that He should give eternal life to as many as Thou hast given Him”. Let us consider the phrase, “as many as Thou hast given Him”. Did God give all men to Christ to be saved? The answer to that question is found in verse 9, “I pray for them (“the men which Thou hast given Me”- verse 6), I pray not for the world, but for them which Thou has given Me, for they are Thine”. If all men had been given to Christ then the contrast could not have been made between those whom God had given and “the world”. Therefore, we must conclude that not all men were given to Christ for salvation.

Hebrews 2:9

“……..that He, by the grace of God should taste death for every man”. The argument is that because He tasted death for all men, that all men would be made alive. The problem with that argument lies in the fact that it contradicts the following verse.

Verse 10, tells us for whom He died, “For it became Him……in bringing many sons unto glory to make the Captain of their salvation perfect through suffering….”. Verse 9 tells us that He died on behalf of every man, but verse 10 tells us that He brought “many sons” to glory. There are, of course, no contradictions in the Word of God. Therefore we must conclude that while it is true that He died on behalf of everyone, many, not all, will be brought to glory.

I John 5:11

“And this is the record, that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in His Son”. Who does John mean by “us” in this verse? Is it all mankind? The only way to answer that question is by determining to whom this epistle was written.

I Jn. 2:21, “I have not written unto you because ye know not the truth, but because ye know it.…”. In other words, John wrote to those who knew the truth, i.e. to believers.

I Jn. 2:27, “But the anointing which ye have received of Him abideth in you and ye need not that any man teach you; but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you ye shall abide in Him“. Unbelievers do not abide in Him (see note above on I Cor. 15:22). Unbelievers do not receive the truth, that’s what makes them unbelievers.

I Jn. 3:1, “Behold what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God; therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew Him not”. Note the contrast between the world, who does not know Him, and “us” who do know Him, and are His children. May I remind the reader that not all men are children of God, but only believers are God’s children. . As we read in Jn. 1:12, “But as many as received Him, to them gave He power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on His name“. (See also the section below, “Is God The Father Of All Men?”) Obviously, if there is a contrast between the world and others, not all men are in the same class as believers. That is to say, some are in the world and do not know Him, and others are not in the world and do know Him.

Let us continue our search of this epistle in order to discover to whom it was written, thereby determining who the “us” is (I Jn. 5:11) that has been given eternal life. We read in I Jn. 4:45″Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them (evil spirits-verse 3)…… They are of the world; therefore speak they of the world, and the world heareth them”. Again the contrast is made between “ye” of verse 4 and “they” of verse 5.  Verse 6 continues the contrast, “We are of God; he that knoweth God heareth us; he that is not of God heareth not us”. If every man were “of God” then there could be no contrast between those that are of God and those who are not. We must conclude therefore, that John wrote this epistle to believers. Therefore, when he wrote “God hath given to us eternal life” he was saying that He gave eternal life to those to whom John was writing, i.e. to believers.

I John 5:4

“For whatsoever is born of God overcometh the world: and this is the victory that overcometh the world, even our faith“. Does everyone overcome the world? The very next verse answers that question, “who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God?” It is believers who overcome and it is believers who are “born of God”.

IS GOD THE FATHER OF ALL MEN?

Malachai 2:10

“Have we not all one Father? hath not one God created us? Why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers?” Does this verse teach that all men are children of God, i.e. that He is the Father of all men? I believe not. Let me explain.

We read  in John 1:12, “But as many as received Him, to them gave He power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on His name“. This verse teaches quite clearly that believers are children of God. Not all men are believers, therefore not all men are children of God.

With that in mind let us come back to Mal. 2:10.  Note this verse speaks of the “covenant of our fathers”. God made  covenants with Israel.  That tells us that Mal. 2:10 is in reference to the fact that God is the Father of Israel in that he created Israel. That point is made  as we consider Is. 64:8.

Is. 64:8 reads, “But now, O Lord, Thou art our Father; we are the clay, and Thou our Potter; and we all are the work of Thy hand”.  Note that Isaiah combines the terms “Father” and “Potter” and combines also the terms “Potter” and “work of Thy hands”  to make the point that God is the Father in so far as He is Israel’s Creator. How can we know if this verse is in reference to Israel or to all mankind?  We read in the preceding verse, i.e. vs. 7, “…..Thou hast hid Thy face from us and consumed us because of our iniquities”.  Isaiah wrote his prophecy to warn Israel of the impending destruction by the Babylonians because of their iniquity. Note also that we read in verse 9,”…….we are all Thy People”.  Israel was God’s People, but He was the Father of Israel only in the sense that He created them. 

Lest Acts 17:26 and 29 be misunderstood to say that God is the Father of all men, let us consider those verses. They read, “And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth……”. “Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God……”.

Note that verse 26 says that all the nations of men were made, i.e. created. Man is a created being. But again,  one becomes the son of God only by receiving Him (see John 1:12, quoted above). How are we to understand this passage  in Acts?

Let us consider the Greek word “genos” translated “offspring” in this passage. The first occurrence of the word is in Matt, 13:47 where it is translated “kind”, “into the sea and gathered of every kind”. It is obvious that “kind” does not imply the idea of familial relationship as does the word “father”.  I am suggesting therefore that like the fish man is a created being and God is the Creator.  But that fact alone does not make God the Father of  man any more than  it makes Him the Father of the fish. But let us continue.

In Matt. 17:21 we read of Christ speaking of evil spirits saying, “this kind go not out”.  Again the word is translated “kind” and again, it is clear that there is no sense of familial relationship as with the word “father”.

In I Cor. 12:10 and 28 we read of “diverse” tongues.  It is the Greek “genos” that is translated “diverse”.

In Phil. 3:5 “genos” is translated “stock” and reads of Paul being “of the stock of Israel”.  Again it is clear that “genos” does not imply a familial relationship.

My point is that we must not read into the word “offspring” something which is not implied by the use of the word. That is to say, the fact that man is the offspring of God does not imply in any way that He is our Father in the familial sense of that word.

DOES MAN HAVE THE RIGHT TO TELL GOD WHO AND WHAT HE SHOULD BE AND DO?

John 3:16

“For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life”. The argument is that because God loved all men that He would save all men. But that is attributing to God the reasoning of man. That is to say, many, if they had the power, would save all men because that is what they believe love would lead them to do. But God is not a man, He is God. It is clear from John 3:16 that indeed God loved the world, but it is just as clear that there is a condition to men being saved unto eternal life. That condition is that “whosoever believeth in Him” will have everlasting life. Not all men meet this condition therefore, not all men will have everlasting life.

Matthew 4:44

“But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you”. The argument is that if man should do these things, so too should God. But man is not in a position to tell God what He must do. God is God, not man.

James 3:17

“But the wisdom that is from above is first pure, then peaceable, gentle, and easy to be entreated, full of mercy and good fruits, without partiality and without hypocrisy“. The argument is that because God is all of these things, He will save all men. But God has made it clear that there is a condition to His saving grace, i.e. that one believes in Him. Frankly, I am offended by the hint that if He does not save all men that He is being hypocritical. Again, man is the created being and is in no position to suggest what God should do, especially in light of the fact that He has made His plan of salvation quite clear in His written Word.

Psalm 145:8-10

“The Lord is gracious, and full of compassion; slow to anger and of great mercy. The Lord is good to all: and His tender mercies are over all His works. All thy works shall praise Thee O Lord; and Thy saints shall bless Thee”.

The implied argument is that because God is so gracious, He will save every person. But, as we have seen, some will never be resurrected (see Is. 26:14, Jer. 51:39 and 57 and Job 14:10-12) and therefore not be saved. The Lord is indeed gracious, but He has made His plan of salvation very clear, one must believe on Him in order to be saved. Those who do not believe will not be saved from the grave.

SCRIPTURES THAT ASSUME (INCORRECTLY) THE RESURRECTION OF UNBELIEVERS

Isaiah 25:7-8

“And He will destroy in this mountain the face of the covering cast over all people, and the vail that is spread over all nations. He will swallow up death in victory; and the Lord God will wipe away tears from off all faces: and the rebuke of His People shall He take away from off all the earth…”. Frankly, I do not see how this passage proves that all men will be saved. I say that because it is clear that these promises are made to those who are alive. That is to say, the “covering cast over all people” that will be destroyed” is obviously a covering over the living. And the victory over death obviously refers to the fact that there will be no more death to those who are alive. But, as we have seen in the sections above, the unbeliever will not be raised. Therefore, the blessings of this passage are promised to those who will be alive, i.e. to believers only, not to unbelievers who will remain in their graves.

Isaiah 40:5

“And the glory of the Lord shall be revealed, and all flesh shall see it together…..”. The glory of the Lord will be seen at His second coming. Obviously, only those who are alive will see it. But because the unbeliever will not be raised, they will not see it. Therefore, to suggest that all men who ever lived will be alive to see that glory is based on the false assumption that all men will be resurrected..

Isaiah 45:22

“Look unto Me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth, for I am God, and there is none else”. The reader may recall that in the section above called “Resurrection In The Old Testament” we learned that it is only believers of Israel that will be resurrected, unbelievers will not be resurrected. (See also Is. 26:14, Job 14:10-12, Jer. 51:39 and 57. which say, in effect, some will never be raised from the grave.) Therefore, when Isaiah said, “Look unto Me and be ye saved”, that looking to God was a prerequisite to salvation. Since all men will not be resurrected, and it is clear that all men do not look to God, we must conclude that not all men will be saved.

Hebrews 2:14

“Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, He also Himself likewise took part of the same; that through death He might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil”. Does this verse tell us that all men will be raised because Christ will destroy Satan who had the power of death? Let us consider this “power of death”. Does that power extend to those who have already died? That is to say, does Satan have the power to raise those who have died? Of course not. There is no hint anywhere in God’s Word of Satan having the power to raise the dead. Therefore, this verse does not tell us that unbelievers will be raised.

I John 3:8

“He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning”. Mr. Mc Ginnis’s comment on this verse assumes the resurrection of all unbelievers. He wrote, “Sin is the work of the devil and will ultimately be destroyed, but men are the workmanship of God and will not be destroyed”. As mentioned above, there are several verses in God’s Word that tells us that some will never be raised, and therefore are indeed “destroyed”

Revelation 4:11

“Thou art worthy, O Lord, to receive glory and honour and power: for Thou hast created all things, and for Thy pleasure they are and were created”. The argument is that because all things were created by God for His pleasure that all men will be saved. But it is clear that they must be alive in order for them to give Him pleasure. and, as has been proven from Scripture, not all men will be raised from the grave. Therefore, only those who are alive, i.e. only believers will be for His pleasure.

Revelation 15:4

“Who shall not fear Thee, O Lord, and glorify Thy name? for Thou only art holy; for all nations shall come and worship before Thee, for Thy judgments are made manifest”. In order for one to fear Him, and worship Him, they must be alive to do so. And, as we have proved from Scripture, unbelievers will not be raised (except for the unbelievers of the tribulation who will be judged at the great white throne).

Hosea 13:14

“I will ransom them from the power of the grave; I will redeem them from death: O death, I will be thy plagues; O grave, I will be thy destruction: repentance shall be hid from Mine eyes”. Let us consider the first phrase of this verse, “I will ransom them from the power of the grave; I will redeem them from death”. Who is it that is referred to as “them” in the phrase “I will ransom them”? The context from verse one to the end of the chapter has to do with Israel. But the Bible teaches that only believers will be raised from the grave. Therefore, I believe that we may conclude that all believers will be ransomed from the grave. May I once again remind the reader that it is only believers who are ransomed from the grave, therefore, this verse cannot apply to unbelievers.

GOD’S CONDITIONAL PLAN OF SALVATION

Genesis 12:3

“And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse them that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed“. It is, of course, Christ the offspring of Abraham, through Whom all the families of the earth will be blessed. But is that blessing that every person in those families will be resurrected for eternal life? That is not implied in this promise to Abraham, and is not substantiated by Scripture. That is to say, God has promised resurrection life to all those who believe in Him. This verse does not cancel that condition. As will be seen below in Gal. 3:8-9, from which this verse is quoted in part, it is only through faith that one inherits eternal salvation.

Galatians 3:8

“And the Scriptures foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, ‘In thee shall all nations be blessed’“. The very next verse tells us categorically that the blessing, while offered to the nations, is given only to those who believe. We read in verse 9, “So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham”.

Isaiah 55:10-11

“For as the rain cometh down, and the snow comes from heaven, and returneth not thither, but watereth the earth, and maketh it to bring forth, and bud, that it may give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater; so shall My word be that goeth forth out of My mouth; it shall not return unto Me void. but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it”. This promise does not invalidate the fact that God has a plan of salvation. That plan requires one to believe in Him in order to be saved. There is nothing in this passage that voids that condition for salvation.

Isaiah 49:6

“And He said, ‘It is a light thing that Thou shouldest be My Servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel. I will also give Thee for a light to the Gentiles, that Thou mayest be My Salvation unto the end of the earth”. It is not all among the tribes of Jacob that will be raised up as we have seen in the section above on resurrection in the Old Testament. And while it is true that Christ is the Lord’s “Salvation”, His plan of salvation, which has been clearly defined, does not include those who refuse to believe in Him. Here again, salvation is promised to all who believe. This passage does not invalidate that condition.

I Timothy 2:6

“Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time”. Christ did indeed give Himself for all. But that doesn’t mean that all will benefit from it. That is to say, God’s plan of salvation required one to believe in order to be raised unto eternal life.  Because some do not believe, some will not be raised.

Isaiah 14:24

“The Lord of hosts hath sworn, saying, ‘Surely as I have thought, so shall it come to pass; and as I have purposed, so shall it stand”. The argument is that if God has planned for all men to be saved, He could and would accomplish it. It is not true that God would save every man, because He has offered salvation only to those who believe in Him.

John 4:42

“…….for we have heard Him ourselves, and know that this is indeed the Christ, the Savior of the world”. Again, Christ is indeed the Saviour of the world, but salvation is in accordance with God’s plan. God’s plan of salvation is that “whosoever believeth on Him shall have everlasting life” (Jn. 3:16). Unfortunately, many do not believe on Him, and therefore do meet the requirements of His plan of salvation.

FORGIVENESS OF SINS IS NOT SALVATION FROM THE GRAVE

I John 2:1-2

“My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not, and if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous: And He is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world“. What does it mean that Christ was the propitiation for our sins? The word translated “propitiation’ is not explained in the New Testament, but it does occur in the Septuagint version of the Old Testament as a translation of the Hebrew word “kaphar”. The Companion Bible gives the definition of “kaphar” as “to cover”. It is first used in Gen. 6:14 where we read that Noah “pitched”( i.e., covered) the ark. We know from this usage that Christ’s blood covered our sins.

But we do not die because we sin. If we did, new born babies who never had a chance to sin would not  die. No, we die because we are in Adam. So when we are saved from the grave, it is not because our sins are covered, it is because we believe in Christ. We are resurrected, i.e. saved unto resurrection life, because God gave us a “guarantee” of resurrection (see Eph. 1:13-14). That guarantee is the holy spirit given to each believer. Those who do not believe are never given that holy spirit, and are therefore never raised, and of course, not saved from the grave.

One more thing that must be appreciated is the reason that Christ is the propitiation of our sins. We read in verse 25 exactly what that reason was, “to declare His righteousness for the remission of sins”. What does that tell us? It tells us that a holy God cannot look upon or fellowship with sinful man, so by covering those sins He maintains His own righteousness while He fellowships with His children. But please note, there is no hint that this covering of sins (i.e. “propitiation”) is for the purpose of salvation.

The context of I John 2:2 will show that salvation is not the subject, it is sins in relation to fellowship that is the subject. Furthermore, as the phrase “my little children” shows, it was written to believers. (Please see the comments on I John 5:11 under the section “Scriptures Taken Out Of Context” for the Scriptural evidence that I John was written to believers.) Why is John concerned with believers sinning? Because sin is an obstacle to fellowship with a holy God. So the message of this portion of Scripture is that believers should seek to be reconciled to Him who died to cover their sins, and the sins of the world, so that believers may enjoy full and blessed fellowship with a holy God.

(For a complete study on forgiveness in God’s plan of salvation please see the paper on that subject.)

Isaiah 1:18

“‘Come now, and let us reason together’, saith the Lord: though your sins be as scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they be red like crimson, they shall be as wool”. To begin with, this verse is speaking of forgiveness of sins for temporal blessings, not for eternal life, as the next two verses will prove. “If ye be willing and obedient, ye shall eat the good of the land; but if ye refuse and rebel, ye shall be devoured with the sword…..”.

Secondly, I believe that the forgiveness of sins has to do with the believers fellowship with a holy God, not with salvation from the grave, (please see the comments above on I John 2:1-2).

THE TWO GREEK WORDS TRANSLATED “IF”

There are two Greek words translated “if”. One is “ei”, the other “ean”. “‘Ei’, “followed by the Indicative Mood, the hypothesis is assumed as an actual fact” (Companion Bible, Appendix 118 2. a). On the other hand, “ean” means, “if haply, if so be that…….Followed by the Indicative Mood….it expresses the condition simply; without any reference to its being decisive by experience, or by the event…… . Followed by the Optative Mood, it expresses an entire uncertainty; a mere assumption or conjecture of a supposed case” (Companion Bible Appendix 118, 2. a. and b.).

I John 1:7

“But if we walk in the light, as He is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ His Son cleanseth us from all sin”. The Greek word translated “if” is “ean” and it is followed by the Indicative Mood. “It expresses the condition simply; without any reference to its being decisive by experience, or by the event”. In other words, if John had meant that if all men “walk in the light” he would have, through the Holy Spirit, used the Greek word “ei” which “is assumed as an actual fact“. But he did not. He used the word “ean” which implies a condition. That is to say, we may not assume that all men walk in the light, and we may not assume that the blood of Christ cleanses all men from their sins.

THE GREEK PREPOSITION “HUPER”

I Timothy 2:6

“Who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time”. The Greek word translated “for” in the phrase “a ransom for all” is “huper”. The Companion Bible gives the following definition of the word as it is used in this verse, “With the Genitive it is used in its relative rather than its absolute sense. In the place of…..”. In other words, He gave Himself as a ransom for all, but not all men accepted it.

EVERY CREATURE

We read in Rev. 5:13, “And every creature which is in heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and such as are in the sea, and all that are in them, heard them saying, ‘Blessings and honour, and glory, and power, be unto Him That sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb for ever and ever”.

Mr. Mc Ginnis writes that this verse tells us that “every creature shall at last pay divine honors”. I am happy to see that he wrote “every creature” because that is indeed what is meant in Rev. 5:13. The assumption is made that every creature will then accept the message of the thousands upon thousands of angels of verse 11 and somehow join in the worship and be saved. But we must be careful to note that this verse tells us that they will hear, not that they will worship. Also, if we say that they will worship we must then include the creatures of the sea, and all the creatures “under the earth”. Who are these creatures “under the earth”?

The Greek word translated “earth” in this verse is “ge” and can mean the earth or it can mean the ground as in Matt. 10:29, “Yet not one of them (sparrows) will fall to the ground apart from the will of the Father”. Note also Matt. 13:5, “Some fell on rocky places where it did not have much soil“. And Matt. 15:35, “He told the crowd to sit down on the ground“. Because we are never told of creatures that live under the earth, I believe we should understand that in Rev. 5:13 the creatures are under the soil, i.e. worms, etc. .

There is no verse in the entire Bible that includes fish, worms and every created being in the message of salvation. Therefore, I believe that whereas every created being will hear the message of the angels, that cannot imply that all created beings will understand it, and be saved by it.

OTHER SCRIPTURES USED TO PROVE UNIVERSAL SALVATION

John 3:35

“The Father loveth the Son, and hath given all things into His hand”. Is this verse saying that all are in Christ? As mentioned in the discussion of I Cor. 15:22 above, it is clear that since Paul speaks of some “in Christ” before he was, it is clear that not all are in Christ. That is to say, there had been a time that Paul was not in Christ, therefore, at that time, all were not in Christ. But Jn. 3:36 makes the point just as well. “He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him”.

John 6:37

“All that the Father giveth Me shall come to Me, and him that cometh to Me I will in no wise cast out”. It is clear that all who cometh to Christ will be saved. It is equally clear that many will not come to Him, and therefore will not be saved. Again the context will prove this point if experience does not. Verse 36 reads, “But I say unto you, that ye also have seen Me, and believe not“.

CONCLUSION

In order to accept the idea that all men will be saved, one must also accept the idea that all unbelievers who ever lived will be raised for judgment at the great white throne.  To say that all unbelievers of every age and dispensation will be raised to be judged at the great white throne is to take Rev. 20, where we read of the great white throne judgment, totally out of context. The context has to do with those who lived through the tribulation, the tribulation is one short three and one-half period in history and it centers on Israel and the nations surrounding Her. In short, the context does not allow a universal application.

APPENDIX

After having completed this paper, I studied all the occurrences of the Hebrew and Greek words translated “judge”, “judged”, “judgeth”, “condemn” etc. I have put the results of that study in a paper on this web-site A Study Of The Judgments Of God. That paper puts all the passages that have to do with God’s judgments into categories based on when those judgments will take place. It also proves that, except for the unbelievers of the tribulation, unbelievers will never be raised for judgment. May I respectfully encourage the reader to read that paper for further proof of the fact that there is no general resurrection of unbelievers.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to respond please e-mail me at: [email protected]ritten by Joyce Pollard. I would like to hear from you. Please E-mail me at:

August 8, 2022/ Religion

WHEN DID THE CHURCH BEGIN? – Right Word Truth

maximios /

I believe that the Church, which is His body began with the beginning of the dispensation of the mystery. (The paper which asks, “are we asking the wrong question”? deals with the importance of determining when the dispensation of the mystery began in order to determine when the church of the dispensation began.) That mystery was that “the nations are together-heirs, together-bodies even together-partakers in the promise in Christ by the gospel” (Eph. 3:6). (Please see the paper on this web-site What Exactly Is The Mystery That Had been Hid In God? for the Scriptural reasons for that translation.) In order for all nations to be together-bodies etc., Israel would have to be set aside as God’s nation separated unto Himself. Also, in order to go from the offer made during the previous dispensation of resurrection life on earth, to the offer made, during the dispensation of the mystery, of resurrection life in heaven, Israel, to whom the earthly offer was made, would have to be put aside. The question is “when did this happen”?

THE TWO MYSTERIES OF EPHESIANS, CHAPTER THREE

In order to understand God’s plans for the ages we must understand the two mysteries of Ephesians 3.  Unfortunately, many Bible students see only one mystery in this chapter which leads to great confusion.  They see the dispensation of the mystery (verse 6) as part of the mystery of Christ (verses 4-5). It is my hope therefore to try to eliminate some of the confusion that surrounds the mystery hid in God by presenting the Scriptural evidence that shows that the mystery of Christ is not  any part of the mystery of Eph. 3:6.

We read in Eph. 3:2-9, (2) “If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward; (3) How that by revelation He made known unto me the mystery; as I wrote afore in few words, (4) Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ; (5) Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto His holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit; (6) That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of His promise in Christ by the gospel; (7) Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of His power, (8) Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ; (9) And to make all men see what is the fellowship (dispensation – same word as in verse 2) of the mystery, which hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ”.

Let us turn our attention to verses 4-5.  In verse 4 we read of the “mystery of Christ”.  In verse 5 we are told that this mystery “was not made known to men in other generations as it has now been revealed by the spirit to God’s holy apostles and prophets“.  There are three things in these verses that are very important to note.

  1. The Greek word translated “as” in the phrase “as it has now been revealed” is “hos” and is used as a comparison. It is used in I Cor.13:11, “When I was a child I spoke as a child…”. To make this verse easier to understand let us add an ellipsis taken from the context. “When I was a child I spoke as a child rather than as a man, I understood as a child rather than as a man, I thought as a child would think rather than as a man”. In Eph. 3:5 the comparison is being made as to the extent that the mystery of Christ had been revealed. That is to say that the mystery of Christ had been revealed to some extent, but not to the extent that it has “now been revealed”. This is an extremely important fact to note about the mystery of Christ, because, as we read in verse 9, the dispensation of the mystery had been hid in God and therefore had obviously not been revealed to any extent.
  2. The mystery of Christ was revealed to “apostles and prophets”, note the plural. But the dispensation of the mystery had been given to Paul, and  to Paul only.
  3. The Greek word translated “revealed” in the phrase, “as it is has now been revealed” is “apokalupto”, and it is the verb form of the same word used in verse 3 where we read of “the mystery made known to me (Paul) by  revelation“. This tells us that the revelation of the mystery that had been hid in God and was given to Paul, was given to him in the same way that the mystery of Christ had been given to the apostles and prophets , i.e. not by the teaching of man, but by revelation from God. (For a more complete discussion of the fact that the mystery of Christ is not the mystery of Eph. 3:6 please see the paper on this web-site,“Which Mystery Had Been Hid In God?”.)

Let us search the Scriptures to find other passages that will tell us more about the mystery of Christ. A mystery is something that is concealed, or it can also be something that is revealed to a few, as in the case of the mysteries of the kingdom of Heaven. “Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given” (Matt. 13:11).

We must bear in mind that the mystery of Christ was: a) revealed to some extent in the Old Testament, b) but “now” made known to apostles and prophets (plural), c) revealed to them by the Spirit by revelation, not by the teaching of man (Eph. 3:4-5).  Let us look at Luke 18:31-34 to see if what we find there will fit the criteria of the “mystery of Christ”.   “Then He took unto him the twelve, and said unto them, ‘Behold, we go up to Jerusalem, and all things that are written by the prophets concerning the Son of Man shall be accomplished.  For He shall be delivered unto the Gentiles, and shall be mocked, and spitefully intreated, and spit on; And they shall scourge Him and put Him to death; and the third day He shall rise again’.  And they understood none of these things: and this saying was hid from them, neither knew they the things which were spoken”.

The disciples did not understand any of the prophecies concerning the death, burial and resurrection of Christ.  I believe that those events constitute the mystery of Christ.  We have read that it was concealed from the 12, that makes it a mystery.  We also see that it was the topic of some prophecy (see Is. 53, crucifixion; Luke 11:30, burial; and Lev. 16:8-10, resurrection – by type), that satisfies the criteria of it being revealed to some extent   And we know, of course, that when He was raised from the dead, Christ fully revealed to His disciples the prophecies concerning His death, burial and resurrection,  which satisfies the criteria of being unfolded more completely in the first century.  I believe therefore, that the mystery of Christ spoken of in Eph. 3:4-5, is His death, burial and resurrection.

Verse 6, on the other hand, is the mystery that was revealed to Paul, i.e., the dispensation of the mystery.   Note, it was revealed to Paul alone, not to the apostles and prophets (plural).  We learn in verse 9 that this mystery was “hid in God” (not revealed in any degree to other generations).  That mystery is that “the nations are together-heirs, together bodies even together partakers in the promise in Christ by the gospel” ( 3:6).

There are two mysteries in Eph. 3.  One is the mystery of Christ, which was known to some degree in past generations, and the other was the mystery, hid in God, i.e. not known in past generations to any degree.  The mystery of Christ was not understood, but it was written about in the Old Testament.  The dispensation of the mystery, on the other hand, was not written about in the Old Testament.  The mystery of Christ was revealed to apostles and prophets (plural) but the mystery hid in God was revealed to Paul, and Paul only. We have in Ephesians 3, two separate mysteries.

Many of those who hold to the mid-Acts position see only one mystery in this passage. On page 68 Dr. Stam writes, “The Greek word “musterion”, rendered “mystery” in the AV, has a two fold meaning.  It may mean merely what is kept hidden, or it may mean something understood only by the initiated, it may also mean both at the same time“.

Dr. E. W. Bullinger gives this information on the Greek, “musterion”.  It occurs in the Septuagint version nine times as the equivalent for the Chaldee “raz” in the Chaldee portion of Daniel, which means to conceal; hence something concealed that can be revealed”.  (For those who may not know, much of the book of Daniel was not written in Hebrew as was most of the Old Testament.  It was written in the ancient language, Chaldee.  The Septuagint Version is the Greek translation of Daniel.)  The Septuagint Version is, of course, not inspired by God, but it does help us to understand more completely the usage of certain Greek words as used in the New Testament).

It is true that a mystery may be understood by a few, or it may be kept hidden, but it can not, in my opinion, mean both at the same time, as Dr Stam suggests.  There is nothing in the word “musterion”, per se, to lead us to the conclusion that the word “musterion” may mean something that is hidden and not hidden at the same time.  God’s Word is often difficult to understand, but it is never illogical.  A mystery may be written about in the Old Testament or it may not be written about in the Old Testament, but it can not be both at the same time. In my opinion, if something is hidden in God, it was not revealed to anyone.  The moment something is written about, whether it was understood or not, it is no longer hidden in God. Therefore, in Ephesians 3 we have a mystery, which had been partially concealed, and another mystery, which had  been completely concealed. The mystery of Christ of Eph. 3:4-5 had been partially concealed and the mystery of Eph. 3:6, had been completely concealed, i.e. hidden in God.

So Eph. 3:4-6 should read, “If you have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward; How that by revelation He made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in a few words, whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ, which in other ages was not made known to the sons of men; as it is now revealed unto His holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit) that the nations are together-heirs, together bodies even together- partakers in the promise in Christ by the gospel”

Why is the differentiation of these two mysteries so important?  The reason is, that if one understands the dispensation of the mystery as being part of the mystery of Christ, i.e. one mystery, one may come to the erroneous conclusion that the dispensation of the mystery began when Paul began to preach the death, burial and resurrection of Christ.

Let me put that another way. The preaching of the gospel of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ (i.e. the mystery of Christ) by Paul constituted the fuller revelation of the mystery of Christ.  That preaching actually began with Peter during the Acts period (see Acts 2:23-24).  If one understands only one mystery in Ephesians 3, one is led to the conclusion that the dispensation of the mystery began with Peter with the preaching of the mystery of Christ. This leads to confusions as will be shown in the following portions of this paper.

As we understand the two mysteries in Eph. 3, we understand that the mystery hid in God was not revealed by Paul until his letter to the Ephesians, i.e. after the end of the Acts period.  Once that is understood, I believe that it becomes clear that the dispensation of the mystery began after Acts 28.

WHAT CHARACTERIZES THE DISPENSATION OF THE MYSTERY?

We read in the KJV of  Eph. 3:6, “That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of His promise in Christ by the gospel;

The Greek word translated “Gentiles” in the KJV of Eph. 3:6 is “ethnos”. “Ethnos” occurs 164 times and is translated “Gentiles” 93 times, “nations” 64 times, “Heathen 5 times and “people” 2 times.

The truth that “ethnos” is used of Gentiles as opposed to Jews is found in Matt. 10:5-6, “…..Go not into the way of the Gentiles (Gr. ethnos) ….but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel”. Here, it is clear that Gentiles are all those who are not Jews.

The truth that “ethnos” is also used of a nation as an entity is shown in such verses as Romans 4:17, where in reference to Abraham we read, “I have made thee a father of many nations” (Gr. ethnos). To translate “ethnos” in this verse to read, “I have made thee a father of many Gentiles” totally destroys the sense of this verse. In other words, we must use common sense when determining whether “ethnos” means nations or Gentiles.

As mentioned above, “ethnos” is used by the Holy Spirit for Gentiles and for nations as entities. But nations are made up of individuals, and the Bible also uses the word “ethnos” in reference to the individuals in the nations as well as to the nations as an entity in themselves. The truth that “ethnos” is used of people in the nations is seen in John 11:51-52, “…..he prophesied that Jesus should die for that nation (Gr. ethnos); and not for that nation ( (Gr. ethnos)) only…..”. It is clear that Jesus died, not for a nation as such, but for the people in the nation(s). So “ethnos” is used of Gentiles, it is used of nations as entities, and it is used of people of all nations, including Israel.

I am suggesting that in Eph. 3:6 “ethnos” refers to people in the nations in reference to heirs and partakers.

We come now to the Greek “sussoma” translated “same body” in Eph. 3:6, “Ethnos” is the noun of the sentence and, as is true of many other languages, the adjective “sussoma” must agree in number with the noun it modifies. We read in the book New Testament Greek by D. F. Hudson published by NTC Publishing Group on page 14, paragraph five, “It is also most important to notice that adjectives must have the same function as the noun to which they refer, and must therefore, be in the same Case: they must also have the same number and the same Gender. A singular noun must have a singular adjective, a plural noun must have a plural adjective.…..”. Obviously, “same body” does not reflect a plurality and therefore cannot be correct.

“Sussoma” is made up of the root “soma” which means “body”, and the prefix “sun”. The prefix in the word “sussoma” is spelled differently, but is the prefix “sun”. I will give just a few examples of how the prefix “sun” is used.

It is translated “with” 15 times, as in Mark 14:54, “And Peter followed Him from afar…….and he sat with the servants….”. It is translated “together”13 times, as in “….and were set down together.…”. It is translated “fellow” and “joint” one time each. I believe it is clear that the basic meaning of the prefix “sun” is “with” or “together”.

The Greek word “sussoma” is found only in Eph. 3:6 so we cannot determine its meaning by how it is used. But we are not left in the dark as to the meaning. We know by its usage that “soma” means “body”. And we have learned above by how it is used that the prefix “sun” means “together” or “with”. That tells us that the literal translation of “sussoma” is “together bodies”. How are we to understand the literal term, “together bodies”? I believe we will understand it best if we consider two Old Testament passages that tell us that Israel had been separated by God as a nation apart from all other nations.

I King 8:53, “For Thou didst separate them from among all the people of the earth, to be Thine inheritance….”. Lev. 20:24, “……I am the Lord your God Which hath separated you from the people”.

In other words, what characterizes the dispensation of the mystery is that Israel is no longer a separated nation, separated unto God, that all nations are “together bodies”. How did that happen? Obviously, in order for the nations to be “together bodies” Israel must have been set aside as God’s chosen and separated nation. . Now the question is: when was Israel set aside? This is an important consideration because what characterizes the dispensation of the mystery is that all nations are “together bodies”. So when we learn when that became fact, i.e. when Israel was set aside, we will then know when the dispensation of the mystery began.

WHEN WAS ISRAEL PUT ASIDE AS GOD’S SEPARATED NATION?

ROMANS 11

As we look for the answer to the question of when Israel was set aside as God’s separated nation, I believe that Romans 11 will be very helpful. I believe that most chronologists put the writing of the epistle to the Romans as late in the Acts period.  Dr. E. W. Bullinger and others put it as the last epistle that Paul wrote in the Acts period. With that said, let us consider Rom. 11.

Rom. 11: 13) “For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office; 14) if by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them. 15) For if the casting away of them be the reconciling of the world, what shall the receiving of them be but life from the dead? 16) For if the firstfruit be holy, the lump is also holy; and if the root be holy, so are the branches. 17) And if some of the branches be broken off, and thou, being a wild olive tree, wert graffed in among them, and with them partakest of the root and fatness of the olive tree, 18) boast not against the branches. But if thou boast, thou bearest not the root, but the root thee. 19) Thou wilt say then,’The branches were broken off, that I might be graffed in’. 20) Well, because of unbelief they were broken off and thou standest by faith. Be not highminded, but fear; 21) for if God spared not the natural branches, take heed lest He also spare not thee. 22) Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God; on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in His goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off. 23) And they also, if they abide not still in unbelief, shall be graffed in, for God is able to graff them in again. 24) For if thou wert cut out the olive tree which is wild by nature, and wert graffed contrary to nature into a good olive tree; how much more shall these, which be the natural branches, be graffed into their own olive tree?”

The good olive tree has both believers and unbelievers. How do we know that? We read in verse 17 of the good olive tree, “And if some of the branches be broken off….”. These branches were broken off because of unbelief (vs. 23). That tells us that originally, the good olive tree had unbelievers who were eventually broken off. Also, we read in Rom. 11:23, “for God is able to graff them in again“. These unbelievers must have been in the good olive tree at one time or Paul could not have written that they would be graffed in again. In other words, some of the natural branches were part of the good olive tree, then cut off because of unbelief, but if they do not continue in their unbelief, they will be “graffed in again“. That tells us that unbelievers, as well as believers were part of the good olive tree.

What does the good love tree represent?  We cannot say that Romans 11 teaches that the good olive tree represents the church because at least at some point, the good olive tree  included unbelievers.  Unbelievers are definitely not members of the church which is His body.   Consider verse 24  which  reads, “….how much more shall these, which be the natural branches, be graffed into their own olive tree“. The natural branches were, of course, Israelites. How do we know that? We read in verse 13 that Paul was speaking to Gentiles, “For I speak to you Gentiles….”. Then in verse 17 we read, “….and thou (Gentiles) being a wild olive tree….”. If the Gentiles were the “wild olive tree“, obviously Israel was the good olive tree. Therefore, this passage could not be more clear; the good olive tree represents Israel. 

So Gentiles were being grafted into Israel as late as the end of the Acts period. Surely, Israel was still God’s chosen nation at that time or why would Gentiles be grafted into Her? That means that as late as the end of the Acts period, Israel was still God’s chosen and separated nation, and the dispensation of the mystery in which all nations, including Israel are “together bodies” could not have began until after the end of the Acts period, when indeed, the mystery was made known to Paul and revealed in the first epistle written after the end of the Acts period.

FURTHER EVIDENCE

For further evidence that Israel was divorced, (set aside) at the end of the Acts period let us examine the last epistle written by Paul during the Acts period. If they had been divorced we should not expect to see many of the things that we do see in that great epistle.

Romans 1:16 “I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God for the salvation of everyone who believes; first for the Jew, then for the Gentile”.

Romans 11:1, “I ask then, Did God reject His people? By no means.

Romans11:11, “….salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious”.

Romans 11:14, “….in hopes that I may somehow arouse some of my own people to envy”.  

It is clear, in my opinion, that Israel was not put aside as God’s chosen people at the time of Paul’s letter to Rome, the last letter written during the Acts period. Quite the opposite! The preaching of the gospel to the Gentiles was part of God’s plan to get Israel to repent. (see Deut. 32:21). God was still working on behalf of Israel’s repentance, so that the times of refreshing could begin, a time of blessings for Israel and for the Gentile nations as well, (please read Acts 3:19-21).

I believe therefore, that Israel was set aside as God’s chosen people at Acts 28:25. This made it possible for Paul to announce in his next epistle, Ephesians, that there was a new dispensation wherein the nations were “together-heirs, together bodies even together-partakers in the promise in Christ by the gospel” (Eph. 3:6). With this new dispensation, comes a new church, the church, which is His body.

ISRAEL’S DIVORCE

As mentioned above, in order for the nations to be together bodies Israel as God’s separated nation would have to be put aside. Therefore, we can expect to see Israel put aside in time for the mystery of the present dispensation to be revealed in Ephesians. I believe that Israel was set aside at the end of the Acts period. Let us search the Scriptures to see if that is the case.

May I first respectfully remind the reader that Israel is often referred to as Jehovah’s wife. And just as in the lo-ammi period of the Old Testament when Israel was said to have been divorced (see Is. 50:1), so too was Israel divorced at the beginning of this present lo-ammi period, i.e. the dispensation of the mystery. We read in Acts 28:25, “And when they (the Jewish leaders at Rome) agreed not among themselves, they departed”. The Greek word translated “departed” is “apeluonto” which is derived from “apoluo” which is often used of divorce. That would tell us exactly when Israel was divorced, i.e. at Acts 28:25. But some have said that it can’t mean divorce in this verse because the Greek would have to be in the passive voice and it is not in the passive voice, it is in the middle voice. A bit of clarification might be in order.

The middle voice is when an action is performed to or for oneself. The passive voice is when something is done to someone else. So in Acts 28:25, if the Greek word is in the middle voice it would mean that they themselves departed. That is to say, because one cannot divorce himself, the word “departed” would be the best choice of translations if the Greek word were in the middle voice. In the passive voice, “divorced” would be the meaning intended. Obviously then, we need to determine if this Greek word is in the passive or middle voice. The difficulty comes because the word is the same in the middle voice as it is in the passive voice, so the word itself will not help us. We must rely on the context for that determination.

As we look at the context we read in verse 29, “When he (Paul) had said these words, the Jews departed”. This Greek word translated “departed” is “aperkomai”. It is never used of divorce, it has the very simple meaning of “having left”, or “departed”. So in verse 25 Luke writes, through the Holy Spirit, that the Jews “apoluento” and in verse 29 we have Luke writing that the Jews aperkomai”.

We must ask ourselves if Luke was telling us the same thing two times, i.e. the Jews left. Or was he telling us in verse 25 that Israel was divorced and in verse 29 that the Jewish leaders left. I believe that Luke was telling us two different things. I believe that because the fact of these men leaving does not seem to warrant Luke writing it twice. It was profoundly significant that they disagreed when they left (vs. 29b), but I don’t see the profundity in the fact that they left.  In point of fact, I believe that in Acts 28:25 “apeluonto” means both, departed and divorced. I believe the figure of speech “double meaning” is used in this verse. The Companion Bible gives the following definition to the figure of speech called, “Amphioblogia or Double meaning”. “A word or phrase susceptible of two interpretations, both absolutely true“.  (Please see the paper on this web-site Is The Dispensational Boundary Acts 28:28 or 28:25? for further proof that Israel was divorced at Acts 28:25.) 

WHEN WAS THE MYSTERY REVEALED? 

We know that the mystery was hid in God and revealed to Paul. We read in Acts 20:27, “For I have not hesitated to proclaim to you the whole council of God”. Paul is telling the Ephesians elders that he has told them everything that God had revealed to him, i.e. the whole council of God. But we read nothing of the church which is His body in the epistles written before Acts 20. (I have written about passages that seem to contradict this statement in the appendix of this paper.) This tells us that up to the time of Acts 20 the mystery had not been revealed. If it had, Paul could not have said that he proclaimed the “whole council of God”.

The mystery was not revealed in any of the epistles written before Acts 20; it was revealed in Ephesians, the first epistle written by Paul after the end of the Acts period. I believe therefore that we may conclude that the dispensation of the mystery began at the time of its being revealed, i.e. after the end of the Acts period. The church, which is His body is the church of the dispensation of the mystery, therefore, the church began after the end of Acts.

APPENDIX

SOME SEEMING CONTRADICTIONS 

There are some passages that seem to suggest that the secret of the dispensation of the mystery was revealed before Paul wrote of it in Ephesians. We will examine each of them, and I believe we will see that they do not contradict anything suggested in this paper.

ROMANS 16:25-26

“Now to Him That is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery which was kept secret since the world began. But now is made manifest and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith”.

The question is, which mystery is being spoken of in these verses. Is it the dispensation of the mystery of which Paul wrote in Eph. 3:6? If it is that mystery, that would show that the mystery was revealed before Acts 28, as Romans is an Acts period epistle. (There are many however who believe that these verses are a postscript added after the end of the Acts period, but I do not agree with that conclusion.) We must determine which mystery Paul had in mind when he penned these verses at the end of Romans. There are several clues in the verses themselves that will help in our study of this question.

Consider the opening of this passage, “Now to Him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel….”. Paul uses the phrase “my gospel” three times. Here in Romans 16, in Romans 2:16 and in II Tim. 2:8.

Romans 2:16, “This will take place on the day when God will judge men’s secrets through Jesus Christ, as my gospel declares.” To what is Paul referring when he writes “This will take place”. He is referring to verse 13 where we read, “For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God’s sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous”. So in this context the term “my gospel” refers to the judgment of Israel’s righteousness.

The other reference to “my gospel” is found in II Tim. 2:8 where we read, “Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David, was raised from the dead according to my gospel”.

We are not left with any doubt as to what Paul meant by the term “my gospel”. It referred to the judgment of Israel and the resurrection of Christ from the dead. Note it had nothing to do with the dispensation of the mystery.

We come now to the phrase, “the mystery which was kept secret since the world began”. The Greek word translated “secret” ‘ is “sigao”. It occurs nine times in the New Testament and is translated “kept close” once; “held (their) peace” four times; “kept silence” three times and “secret” once, in Rom. 16. It is clear from its usage that “kept silent” is a better translation than “kept secret”.

The secret of the dispensation of the mystery, on the other hand, was kept “hid in God”. We read in Eph. 3:9 of the “mystery which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God…..”. And in Col. 1:26 we read of “the mystery which hath been hid…”. The Greek word translated “hid” in these verses is “apokrupto”, a much different word that “sigao” of Rom. 16:25.

Let us continue with one more phrase in Rom. 16:26 in our effort to determine if the mystery of Rom. 16 is the same mystery written about in the prison epistles. Note the mystery of Romans was made manifest “by the scriptures of the prophets” (plural). But the mystery of the dispensation of the mystery was made known only to Paul. 

Note also that this mystery was “made known to all nations for the obedience of faith“. The mystery that had been hid in God was that the ethnos are together heirs, together bodies and together partakers. That has nothing to do with “the obedience of faith”.

Let us try to pull together what we have learned in order to discover if the mystery of Romans 16 is the mystery spoken of in the prison epistles.

  1. The mystery of Romans 16 is referred to as “my gospel” the nature of which is explained in Rom. 2:16 and II Tim. 2:8. It has nothing to do with the dispensation of the mystery as described in Eph. 3:6. “My gospel” has to do with judgment of Israel and the resurrection of Christ.
  2. The mystery of Romans 16 had been kept in silence. The mystery of the prison epistles was “hid in God”. Where the Holy Spirit chooses a different word  the student of His Word must take note.
  3. The mystery of Romans 16 had been revealed by “the prophets” (plural). But the mystery was revealed by the Spirit to Paul alone.
  4. The mystery of Rom. 16 was for the obedience of faith. The mystery that had been hid in God and revealed in Eph. 3:6 has nothing to do with the obedience of faith.

We must conclude therefore, that the mystery spoken of in Romans 16 is not the dispensation of the mystery revealed in Ephesians, written after Acts 28.

If the mystery of Romans 16 is not the dispensation of the mystery, what is it? Again, the answer to that question lies in the term “my gospel” which has to do with the resurrection of Christ and with the judgment of Israel.

The reader may recall that in the body of this paper I called to the readers attention the mystery of Christ in the section on the two mysteries of Ephesians three. That mystery had to do, in part, with the resurrection of Christ. The mystery of Christ meets all the criteria mentioned in Romans 16. It was written about by the prophets. It was not “hid in God”, It was “kept in silence”. And it was what Paul described as “my gospel”. 

I CORINTHIANS 2:7-8

l Cor. 2:7-8, reads, “we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden in God and that God destined for our glory. None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had they would not have crucified the Lord of glory“.  The wisdom of verses 7 and 8 is not that the Gentiles would be together heirs in Christ.  That is not the message that prompted the “rulers of this age” to “crucify the Lord of glory”. That message was not even know at the time of the crucifixion.

ROMANS 12:5

Romans 12:5, “So in Christ, we who are many form one body, and each member belongs to all the others”.  The context, verses 3-8, clearly shows that Paul was asking the Roman church to be cooperative with each other, he uses the term “body” as we use it today in such phrases as “student body” and a “governing body”. To say that this verse speaks of the church which is His body is to take it out of context, a practice that often leads to error. Moreover, as the paper on this web-site The One Body Of Ephesians Two Is Not The Church Which Is His Body will prove, Romans 12:5 has to do with “one body” which is not the same as the church which is His body.

I CORINTHIANS 12:12, 13 and 27

l Cor. 12:12, 13 and 27 is a passage which treats the term “body” in much the same way as did Romans 12:5.  Note especially verse 21, “and the head can not say to the feet, “I don’t need you”.  Christ is the head of the Church, which is His Body.  He is not just another member of the body. Again, the context does not lead us to believe that Paul is referring to the church which is His one body of Ephesians.

This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. I  hear your thoughts. Please E-mail me at: [email protected]

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