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CAN A SAVED PERSON LOSE HIS/HER SALVATION?
There are many verses offered on both sides of this debate, but obviously, both sides cannot be correct. I will begin by telling the reader that I believe that a saved person cannot lose his/her salvation. I will present the scriptures which lead me to that belief and I will present and discuss the other side of the coin, i.e. Scriptures offered by those who believe that one can lose their salvation.
SCRIPTURES THAT POINT TO A ONCE SAVED, ALWAYS SAVED POSITION
EPHESIANS 2:8
We read in Eph. 2:8, “For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God”. It is of extreme importance to note that salvation is a gift. But too many think of salvation as an agreement between themselves and God. That is to say that some think that because they have agreed to believe in Him, God will give them salvation. From that point they argue that if one party of the assumed “agreement” fails in that agreement, the agreement is canceled.
But salvation is not an agreement, it is a gift. God gives this gift of salvation to those who believe in Him. Let us look at John 3:16 as an example of the message of salvation. For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever should believe in Him shall….have everlasting life”. In other words, salvation is a gift that God chooses to give to only those who believe in Him. But those who believe that salvation is an agreement that can be broken read this verse as if it said, “If you believe you will have everlasting life”. If that is the way this verse read then salvation would not be a gift, it would be given as a fulfillment of something owed because their part of the agreement was met. Salvation is not an agreement between man and God, it is a gift that God chooses to give to those who believe in Him.
It should also be noted that we read no less than nine times in the Word of God that one must believe in Christ in order to partake in this gift of salvation. I will quote those nine verses and ask the reader to please note that there is not one word of a condition attached to them. That is to say, surely if this gift could be withdrawn God would have explained when He offered it what the conditions were, but He did not. He did not explain what the conditions of this gift were because there are no conditions to receiving this gift. The gift of salvation is given to all those who believe and the gift cannot be withdrawn without God breaking His word. God cannot lie, and therefore, God cannot break His word. He promised the gift of salvation to those who believe in Him and that promise will be fulfilled, even if it is not appreciated.
Those nine verses that explain the gospel of salvation are:
Jn. 1:12, “But as many as received Him, to them gave He power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on His name”.
3:16, “For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life”.
3:18, “He that believeth on Him is not condemned; but he that believeth not is condemned already”.
6:40, “And this is the will of Him That sent Me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on Him, may have everlasting life; and I will raise him up at the last day”.
6:47, “Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on Me hath everlasting life”.
11:25, “Jesus said unto her, ‘I am the resurrection and the life; he that believeth in Me, though he were dead, yet shall he live”.
20:30-31, “And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of His disciples, which are not written in this book; but these are written that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing ye might have life through His name”.
Acts 16:31, “And they said, ‘Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house”.
Rom. 3:26, “….that He might be just and the Justifier of him which believeth in Jesus“.
EPHESIANS 1:13-14
We read in Eph. 1:13-14, “In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed ye were sealed with that Holy Spirit of promise, which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession ….”. Note the three words highlighted in this passage. We were sealed, with a promise which is the earnest or guarantee of resurrection. This guarantee is a promise which is given when we were sealed. This promise does not come with any conditions. Therefore, God, Who cannot lie, cannot break this promise of resurrection to all who had been sealed, i.e. all who are saved.
JOHN 10:28
John 10:28, “And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand“. The Greek translated here “never” is “ou me”. The Companion Bible gives the following definition, “The two negatives when combined lose their distinctive meanings, and form the strongest and most emphatic asserevation“. Had the Holy Spirit used the Greek “me” alone He would have given a conditional aspect to the statement of this verse. The Companion Bible definition of “me” is, “expressing conditional negation….”. But the Holy spirit did not use the conditional word, He used the phrase which makes the statement that “they shall never perish” unconditional.
ROMANS 8:37-39
Romans 8:37-39, “Nay, in all these things we are more than conquerors through Him That loved us. For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, nor height nor depth, nor any other creature shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord”.
PHILIPPIANS 1:6
Phil. 1:6, “Being confident of this very thing, that He Which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ”. The Greek word translated “perform” is “epiteleo”. It is translated “perform” 4 times, “do” once. But it is also translated “accomplish” two times and “perfect” or “perfecting” or “made perfect” and “finish”. In other words “epiteleo” carries the idea of finishing the act. Therefore, the NIV translation gives a better sense of the meaning of this verse. “being confident of this, that He Who began a good work in you will carry it on to completion until the day of Christ Jesus”. The work that was “begun” was obviously, salvation. Here we are told that that work will be completed. The term “until the day of Christ Jesus” refers to resurrection. Therefore, we are told in this verse that God will complete the work of salvation at resurrection. Note there is no condition attached, and it is not man, but God Who will complete the work.
A STUDY OF THOSE PASSAGES THAT SEEM TO SUGGEST THAT ONE MIGHT LOSE THEIR SALVATION
SALVATION IN THE OLD TESTAMENT AND THE GOSPELS ACCORDING TO MATTHEW, MARK AND LUKE
Too many Christians begin their study of God’s Word in the middle of the book, i.e. at the New Testament. There are any number of questions that are highly controversial, in part, because we don’t all study the question beginning with the Old Testament. The question before us is one of those.
When the New Testament opens, Christ and His apostles were addressing, for the most part, Israelites. Christ and His apostles understood the mindset of those Israelites, because they understood that their mindset came from the Old Testament, and they addressed their audience with that thinking in mind. We must have the same thinking as did the audience of Christ and His apostles if we are serious about understanding their teachings. The New Testament did not come out of a vacuum, it began as a continuation of the teachings of the Old Testament. So let us look at what the Old Testament has to say about salvation and loss of salvation.
It may surprise some to know that, apart from the types and shadows, there are only four scriptures in the entire Old Testament that speak of salvation. They are: 1) “Abraham believed God and it was counted unto him as righteousness” (Gen. 15:6). 2) “I know that my Redeemer liveth” (Job 19:25). 3) “The just shall live by faith” (Hab. 2:4). 4) Ezekiel chapter 37 which speaks of the resurrection.There are no Old Testament scriptures that allude to the loss of salvation. (As we continue, we will discuss some Old Testament scriptures that are thought by some to be about loss of salvation, but, as the reader shall see in the section below, that is pure conjecture.)
It is clear that the Old Testament has very little to say about salvation. But the Old Testament has much to say about the blessings of the millennial reign of Christ. That is to say, the emphasis in the Old Testament was not on salvation for the individual, it was on the blessings for the nation of Israel associated with Christ’s reign, which would be a time of tremendous blessings for Israel. It is clear from such passages as Matthew 21:9 that that same emphasis was continued in the early part of the New Testament. That is to say, Matthew, Mark and Luke did not write primarily about salvation or about Christ in His office of Savior. Matthew 21:9 reads, “And the multitudes that went before, and that followed, cried, saying, ‘Hosanna to the Son of David….”. The title “Son of David” points to Christ as King, not to Christ as Savior. It was Christ as King, not Christ as Savior, that is the emphasis of the Gospel of Matthew. It is Christ as Servant, not as Savior, that Mark emphasizes in his Gospel. And it is Christ in His office of Son of Man, not in His office of Savior that Luke emphasizes in his Gospel. (For the scriptural evidence of those statements please see the paper on this web-site The Kingdom of Heaven.) The first few chapters of the book of Acts also primarily presents Christ as King to Israel.
If we are to understand what the Bible teaches about salvation, we must not depend on that portion of Scriptures of which the primary emphasis is not on salvation.
THE PARABLE OF THE SEEDS
With that in mind let us now look at the parable of the sower as recorded in Luke 8. The parable itself is recorded in verses 5-8, “A sower went out to sow his seed: and as he sowed, some fell by the way side; and it was trodden down, and the fowls of the air devoured it. and some fell upon a rock; and as soon as it was sprung up, it withered away, because it lacked moisture. And some fell among thorns; and the thorns sprang up with it, and choked it. And others fell on good ground, and sprang up, and bare fruit an hundredfold”.
The explanation of the parable is recorded in verses 12-15, “Those by the way side are they that hear; then cometh the devil, and taketh away the word out of their hearts, lest they should believe and be saved”. They on the rock are they, which, when they hear, receive the word with joy; and these have no root, which for a while believe, and in time of temptation fall away. And that which fell among thorns are they, which, when they have heard, go forth and are choked with cares and riches and pleasures of this life, and bring no fruit to perfection. But that on the good ground are they, which in an honest and good heart, having heard the word, keep it, and bring forth fruit with patience”.
The seed that fell by the “way side” were deceived by the devil. But we read in Romans 8, “neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, nor height nor depth, nor any other creature shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord”. The devil is a creature. We are specifically told that no creature can separate us from the love of God. Therefore, in order to avoid a contradiction in the perfect Word of God, we must conclude that those represented by the seed at the way side were not saved. It should also be noted that the Lord told us in the phrase, “lest they should believe and be saved” that these were not saved.
We read that those represented by the seed that fell on the rock were carried away by “temptation”. But temptation is something that will come. And we read in Romans 8, “neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, nor height nor depth, nor any other creature shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord”. Therefore, in order to avoid a contradiction in the perfect Word of God, we must conclude that those represented by the seed that fell on the rock were not saved. But one might object that at first they did believe and therefore, must have been saved. But God knows who truly believed, and because those who are represented by those who fell on the rock succumbed to temptation, and temptation cannot separate true believers from the love of God, we must conclude that they were not true believers.
The seed that fell among the thorns represent those who are choked with cares and riches etc. of this life. But again, those are things of the present life and we read in Rom. 8, “neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, nor height nor depth, nor any other creature shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord”. Again, in order to avoid a contradiction with Rom. 8 we must conclude that those represented by the seed that fell among the thorns were never saved.
In short, we may not assume that any of those represented by the seeds that fell in various places were saved, and then lost their salvation.This is especially true because Luke does not write primarily of Christ as Savior.
THE TRUE VINE OF JOHN 15
Jn. 15:1-2, “I am the true vine, and My Father is the Husbandman. Every branch in Me that beareth not fruit He taketh away: and every branch that beareth fruit, He purgeth it, that it may bring forth more fruit”.
It is obvious that when our Lord said, “I am the true vine” that He was not speaking literally, because He was not a vine, He was a Man. The “vine” therefore is a metaphor. As is true of all figures of speech, this metaphor enhances the truth for which the metaphor was used. What is that truth that is enhanced by the metaphor of the vine? The answer to that question is given quite specifically by our Lord and recorded in verses 4-5, “Abide in Me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in Me. I am the vine, ye are the branches: He that abideth in Me, and I in him, the same bringeth forth much fruit: for without Me ye can do nothing”. The truth that is enhanced by the metaphor of the vine is put most succinctly in the phrase, ” for without Me ye can do nothing”.
It is also important to know who is represented by the branches. I suggest that that question is answered once we determine what Christ meant by the “fruit” of the branches. The fruit of the branches can be one of two things. It can be, 1) the fruit of the spirit, or it can be 2) the fruit of one’s labors. Gal. 5:22 speaks of the fruits of the spirit, “But the fruit of the spirit is love, joy, peace, longsuffering, gentleness, goodness, faith…”. The more immediate context of Jn. 15 gives us an example of the fruit of one’s labour. We read in Jn. 15:16, “Ye have not chosen Me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain….”. Note the phrase, “that ye should go”.Going is not required to bring forth the fruits of the spirit. Therefore, I believe the most logical conclusion is that the fruits of the vine refers to the fruits of one’s labor, not to the fruits of the holy spirit.
I believe that the context will give the same answer to the question as to which fruit is meant in John 15. This chapter is part of a long discourse given by our Lord to His disciples at the last supper, or rather to eleven of them, as Judas had departed earlier (see Jn. 13:30). Jn. 13:1 sets the time of His discourse, “Now before the feast of the passover, when Jesus knew that His hour was come that He should depart out of this world unto the Father…..”. In other words, this discourse was given to the 11 at a time when Christ knew that His earthly ministry was coming to a rapid close.
Taking into consideration that chapter 15 comes in Christ’s last message to His disciples before the end of His earthly ministry, I believe it is more logical to conclude that the “fruits” of the branches of the vine are not the fruits of the spirit of Gal. 5, but the fruits of the labors of the disciples. That is to say, the “fruits” are those who the disciples “bring forth”.
We are now ready to discuss who is represented by the figure of the branches of the vine. We have already learned that Christ was speaking to the 11 disciples. The question is: was He speaking to them as followers or as believers. These 11 were, of course, both followers and believers, so the distinction is not that obvious. But we read in verse 16, “Ye have not chosen Me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit”. In my opinion, the phrase “I have chosen you and ordained you” points to the conclusion that Christ was speaking to them primarily as His followers. That is to say, not every believer has been “chosen” and “ordained” to go bring forth fruit. It is true that all believers are expected to bring forth fruits of the holy spirit as listed in Gal. 5:22, but not all believers have been chosen and ordained to go forth to bring forth other believers. But there are a few more hints in the context that Christ is speaking to the 11 primarily as His followers.
We read in 13:35, “By this shall all men know that ye are My disciples, if ye have love one to another”. It is true of course, that this can be said of believers, but it is significant that our Lord said that their love will show that they are His disciples, not that it will show that they are believers.
Consider also 15:8, “Herein is My Father glorified, that ye bear much fruit; so shall ye be My disciples“. Every word in the Bible is God inspired. Note that Christ did not say that their fruits showed that they were believers, but that their works showed that they were His disciples. I am suggesting that because the fruit of the branches represented those to whom the disciples were sent forth to reach for Christ, that the branches of the vine represented Christ’s disciples primarily as followers, not primarily as believers.
Having determined that the branches of the vine represented the followers of Christ, more specifically the disciples, we are now ready to consider who is represented by the branch of verse 2, the one that was cast away. I believe the branch of verse 2 was Judas. The branches represent Christ’s followers, Judas was a follower. Consider also verse 3, “Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you”. Compare that with Jn. 13:10-11, “……and ye are not all clean. For He knew who should betray Him; therefore said He, ‘Ye are not all clean'”. In my opinion there is an implied reference in this comparison to Judas, who was not clean and who was therefore, a branch that was taken out of the vine.
But Judas was not a believer (see the discussion of Judas in the section below “Individuals Who Are Said To Have Lost Their Salvation”). Therefore, as the branch that was taken out of the vine, Judas did not lose his salvation, because Judas as an unbeliever never was saved. Judas lost his place as a disciple of Christ, but he could not have lost what he never had, i.e. salvation.
We must consider verse 6, because that verse is not about just the 11, it is about any man. Verse 6 reads, “If a man abide not in Me, he is cast forth as a branch and is withered….”. Logic plus the context demands that if the branch of verse 2 is Judas who was a follower, but not a believer who did not bring forth fruit, then the man of verse 6 is also a follower, but not a believer, one that did not bring forth fruit.
I believe that the branches that are taken out of the vine are those followers who do not bring forth other followers who will “remain”. This passage does not speak of loss of salvation, it speaks of followers who will be cast out of the Vine because they fail to bring forth the fruit for which they are sent, i.e. followers who will “remain”. Verse 2 sets the precedence for the conclusion that these followers who do not produce fruit, are unbelievers. So again, they did not lose their salvation because as unbelievers, they were never saved.
For the sake of thoroughness, we must consider the objection by some that we are told that these branches are “in Christ”, which makes them believers. In truth, we are never told that the branches are “in Christ”. The phrase “in Christ” is never used in this passage. We do read in 15:2, “Every branch in Me” and of course, the “Me” is Christ”. But again, every word of the Bible is God inspired and we must judge from the context. how the Holy Spirit wants us to understand the phrase “in Me”.
INDIVIDUALS WHO ARE SAID TO HAVE LOST THEIR SALVATION
This brings me to a web-site that discusses how certain individuals in the Bible lost their salvation. That web-site address is: www.eternallysecure.com/examples.html. I would like to discuss just a few of these examples.
KING SAUL
King Saul is said on this web-site to have lost his salvation. The reference given to prove that he was saved is I Sam. 10:6. The reference given to prove that Saul lost his salvation is I Sam.15:11. Let’s look at those references.
I Sam. 10:6, “And the spirit of the Lord will come upon thee, and thou shalt prophesy with them. and shalt be turned into another man”. Does the fact that the spirit of the Lord coming upon Saul mean that he was saved? No. When the spirit comes upon someone, or someone is “filled” with the spirit it is power from the Holy Spirit. In those cases the figure of speech “Metonymy” is used. That figure puts the cause (the Holy Spirit) for the effect (the power from the Holy Spirit). (For the scriptural evidence of that statement please see the paper on this web-site Does The Holy Spirit Live In Us?.) The spirit of the Lord is always given so that the ones to whom it is given may accomplish a specific work in accordance with the will of God. That specific work for which the spirit was given is always described in the context. The power from the Holy Spirit is never given for salvation. That is to say, being filled with power from the Holy Spirit does not save a person. When a person believes in Christ that person receives the gift from the Holy Spirit, i.e. the new nature, but that is not the same as being filled with the power from the Holy Spirit.(Again, the above mentioned paper on the Holy Spirit will prove these statements.) Let us look at just a few examples for proof of that.
In the verse we are considering, Saul was given the spirit of the Lord so that he could prophecy. Salvation is not in view in this context. We are told only that the power from the Holy Spirit ( the figure of speech Metonymy is used) will come upon Saul and that he would prophecy.
Consider also Judges 14:6, “The Spirit of the Lord came upon him with power so that he tore the lion apart with his bare hands”. The spirit of the Lord came upon Samson for the very specific purpose of protecting him from the lion. This does not in any way allude to eternal salvation.
Consider also, Judges 15:14,”….The Spirit of the Lord came upon him in power. The ropes on his arms became like charred flax and the bindings dropped from his hands”. The spirit of the Lord came upon Samson so that he could bring down the temple of the heathen. Again, salvation is not in view in this passage. In point of fact, it is destruction, not salvation that is in view.
Numbers 11:17, “I will come down and speak with you there, and I will take of the Spirit that is on you and put the Spirit on them. They will help you carry the burden of the people so that you will not have to carry it alone”. Moses did not lose his salvation when the spirit of the Lord was taken from him, it was simply given to others in order to share his burden of leadership. Salvation is not in view in this context.
It is clear from these verses that the spirit coming upon someone does not imply salvation. That spirit is given so that the one who receives it may accomplish the specific will of God for which it was given. Therefore, the spirit of the Lord coming upon Saul certainly does not prove that Saul was saved. As for the phrase, “and shalt be turned into another man”, in view of the fact that the spirit coming upon him does not save, it is pure conjecture to assume that Saul becoming “another man” means salvation.
Now let us look at the verse given to prove that Saul lost his salvation, i.e. I Sam. 15:11, “It repenteth Me that I have set up Saul to be king: for he is turned back from following Me, and hath not performed My commandments”. What we are told is that God did not want Saul to be king over Israel any longer. To see a loss of salvation in this verse is again, pure conjecture.
I am not saying that Saul was saved or that he was not saved. I don’t know, because we are not told, if he was or if he wasn’t. What I am saying is that the account of Saul becoming king is not an account of his salvation, it is of his being chosen by God to rule as king over Israel, and that rule was eventually taken from him, period. My point is that we must not see salvation, especially in the Old Testament and the Gospels of Matthew, Mark and Luke, when salvation is not the message.
SOLOMON
The above mentioned web-site also claims that Solomon was saved and lost his salvation. The verse given to prove that Solomon was saved is I Chron. 22:10, “He shall build an house for My Name; and he shall be My son, and I will be his Father; and I will establish the throne of his kingdom over Israel for ever”. This verse says absolutely nothing about Solomon being saved. It speaks only of his building the temple of God.
The verse given to prove that Solomon lost his salvation is I Kings 11:4, “For it came to pass, when Solomon was old, that his wives turned away his heart after other gods: and his heart was not perfect with the Lord his God, as was the heart of David his father”. It is, of course, highly regrettable that the man responsible for building the temple of God had turned away to other gods. But there is nothing in this verse that implies that Solomon lost his salvation. Once again, to say so is pure conjecture.
The author of the web-site also suggests I Kings 11:9 and I Chron. 28:9 as the proof that Solomon lost his salvation. I Kings 11:9 tells us that “the Lord was angry with Solomon because his heart was turned from the Lord…..”. But this does not say that God took away his salvation. I Chron. 28:9 reads, in part, “if thou forsake Him, He will cast thee off for ever”. The Hebrew word translated “cast off” is “nagh”. It is used by David in reference to himself in any number of Psalms including Ps. 43:2, 44:9, 60:1, etc. One example should suffice to prove that “cast off” does not mean loss of salvation., “Ps. 43:2, “why dost Thou cast me off”. If one says that “cast off”, as applied to Solomon means loss of salvation, one must say the same of David. Given that David is spoken of as reigning as Christ’s regent in the millennium, it is quite impossible that David lost his salvation (For the scriptural proof that David will reign as Christ’s regent in the millennium, please see the paper, Will David Reign As Christ’s Regent On The Millennial Throne?
So the Old Testament does not tell us that Solomon was saved, and it does not tell us that he lost his salvation. Again, my point is not that Solomon was not saved, we are not told if he was. My point is that much of the so-called proof that one can lose his salvation, especially in the Old Testament, which does not have salvation as its primary message, is pure conjecture.
JUDAS
It is often said by those who believe that one can lose their salvation that Judas lost his salvation, therefore that proves it is possible for anyone to lose their salvation. But as we read in John 6:64, Judas was never a believer, and therefore was never saved. “‘But there are some of you that believe not’. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray Him”. If Judas was not a believer, and this verse tells us that he was not, then he obviously was not saved. One cannot lose something he never had.
But some have pointed to Jn. 17:12 in an effort to prove that Judas had been saved. That verse reads, “While I was with them in the world, I kept them in Thy Name: those that Thou gavest Me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled”. Does the phrase “those that Thou gavest Me” refer to those the Father gave to Christ to be saved? Obviously not, because Judas was not a believer and therefore never saved. The only way we can understand the phrase without contradicting Jn. 6:64 is to conclude that “those that Thou gavest Me” refers to those the Father gave to Christ to be followers, not to be saved.
I will not discuss any more of the individuals who are spoken of on the web-site mentioned. I hope that the reader will be able to see for himself/herself that the scriptures given on that web-site to prove that one is saved and then lost that salvation is pure conjecture.
RIGHTEOUSNESS
Ezek. 18:24, “But when the righteous turneth away from his righteousness, and committeth iniquity, and doeth according to all the abominations that the wicked man doeth, shall he live? All his righteousness that he hath done shall not be mentioned: in his trespass that he hath trespassed, and in them shall he die”.
We must understand the Hebrew word translated “righteous”. That Hebrew word is “tzadek”. This word does not mean “saved”, it means having done correctly or having done the right things. How do we know that? The meaning of a word is always derived from its usage and we read in I Sam. 24:17, “Thou art more righteous than I”. A person is not more saved than another. He may have done more of the right things, but he is not more saved. Consider also I Kings 2:32 which uses the word in the same way and reads, “…two men more righteous and better….”. Again, a person is not more saved.
Let us also determine from the context exactly what the Holy Spirit means by the phrase “the righteous turneth away from his righteousness”. In point of fact it is explained in the very next phrase, “and committeth iniquity”. In other words, to turn away from righteousness is to commit iniquity. This is consistent with the correct meaning of “tzadek”. That is to say, the man who does the right things at one time in his life but has turned away from doing the right things, and has turned to committing iniquity shall not be raised for resurrection life. In short, this passage says that if a man who has done the right things turns from those deeds and commits the abominations of the wicked, he will die and not be raised for resurrection life.
But many believe that this man lost his salvation because the Word says that he was “righteous”. But again, “righteous” does not mean “saved”. To say, therefore, that this man was saved is pure conjecture, there is no scriptural evidence that he was ever saved. In point of fact, because he turned away from doing the right things, and turned instead to do iniquity, we must conlcude that he was never saved. He could not lose what he never had.
PASSAGES TAKEN OUT OF THEIR DISPENSATIONAL CONTEXTS
HEBREWS 6:4-8
The book of Hebrews falls under the same category as the Old Testament and the Gospels according to Matthew, Mark and Luke. That is to say, Hebrews, like the Old Testament, is not primarily about salvation. The emphasis in those portions of Hebrews that are put forth as proof that one can lose his/her salvation are about the blessings that will be enjoyed by those in the Land of Israel during the millennial reign of Christ. They are not about salvation. Those outside the Land will not enjoy those blessings.( For the scriptural evidence of that statement please see the paper on the web-site, The Kingdom of Heaven.) We must, therefore, not assume a salvation message where salvation is not the primary subject.
Heb. 6:4-8, “For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost, and have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come, if they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance; seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh, and put Him to an open shame. ………..But that which beareth thorns and briers is rejected, and is nigh unto cursing; whose end is to be burned”.
The very first and most obvious fact to note is that this passage appears in the book written to the Hebrews. We have already discussed the fact that Hebrews, like the Old Testament, is not primarily concerned with salvation, but with millennial blessings, so we will move on.
The next thing we must note is the reference to repentance in verse 6. As the paper on this web-site Repent! Is Not A Message Of Salvation will prove from scripture, repentance was never for salvation, it was for earthly blessings, and in the Acts period (during which Hebrews was written) the blessing that was promised was entrance into the Land of Israel for the millennial blessings.
It is not coincidental that the writer of Hebrews says in verse 8 says, “that which beareth thorns and briers is rejected, and is nigh unto cursing”. What is the curse that is alluded to in this verse? Is the loss of salvation ever referred to as a curse? It is not, mostly because there is no loss of salvation. What is referred to as a curse is the loss of the right of entrance into the Land. Ps. 37:22, “For such as be blessed of Him, shall inherit the earth ( Hebrew is eretz” and should be “Land”); and they that be cursed of Him shall be cut off“. Verse 9 explains what it means to be “cut off”. “For evildoers shall be cut off; but those that wait upon the Lord, they shall inherit the earth (again it is “eretz” and should be translated “land”, i.e. Land of Israel)”. And verses 28-29, “…..For the Lord loveth judgment, and forsaketh not His saints; they are preserved for ever: but the seed of the wicked shall be cut off. The righteous shall inherit the land, and dwell therein for ever”. What we learn from these passages is that to be blessed is to inherit the Land during the millennium, and to be cursed is to be denied entrance into the Land for millennial blessings.
How are we to understand the phrase, “whose end it is to be burned”? For that, we must turn to Matthew 13:41-43, “The Son of Man shall send forth His angels, and they shall gather out of His kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity: And shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be weeping and wailing of teeth. Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father……..”. I believe a few words of clarification are called for.
1) The phrase “furnace of fire” does not mean the traditional view of hell. It is in reference to the countries outside the Land which will not enjoy the blessings that the righteous in the Land will enjoy. (For the scriptural proof of that statement please see the paper on this web-site, The Kingdom of Heaven.) 2) This passage in Matthew speaks of two groups. One group consists of those already in the Land at His coming who will be cast out because of their unrighteousness. The other group are those who will be gathered and then judged at His coming. This judgment is described in Ezek. 20:34-40. It describes the gathering of the dispersed of Israel (verse 34), their judgment (verse 35) and the fact that some will not be allowed entrance into the Land (verse38). (The reader is encouraged to read that section for himself/herself.)
The passage quoted in Heb. 6 is not about a saved person losing their salvation. It is about the judgment of Israel at the second coming of our Lord for entrance into the Land of Israel for millennial blessings.
HEBREWS 10:26-31
Heb. 10:26-31, “For if we sin willfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins, but a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation which shall devour the adversaries. He that despised Moses’ law died without mercy under two or three witnesses: Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy , who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted, the blood of the covenant, wherewith He was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the spirit of grace? For we know Him that hath said, ‘Vengeance belongeth to Me, I will recompense’, saith the Lord. And again, ‘The Lord shall judge His people’. It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God”.
The phrase, “fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation” has led many to conclude that hell is in the mind of the writer. Let me say first that the traditional view of hell is unscriptural, and therefore does not enter into the interpretation of this passage. Please see the paper, A Study Of Hell on this web-site for the scriptural evidence of that statement.
Next, let us consider the phrase, “fiery indignation”. The note on this phrase in the Companion Bible reads, “= jealousy, or fervour of fire. A Hebraism. See Ps. 79:5, Ezek. 36:5, 38:19, Zeph. 1:18, Cp. Deut. 29:20”. Let us look at just a few of these verses.
Ps. 79:5, “How long, Lord? wilt Thou be angry for ever? Shall Thy jealousy burn like fire?
Ezek. 36:5, “…..Surely in the fire of My jealousy have I spoken against the residue of the heathen….”.
Ezek. 38:19, “For in My jealousy and in the fire of My wrath have I spoken….”.
This phrase then has nothing to do with hell, or with loss of salvation. The burning fire is a figure of speech used to enhance the picture of God’s anger. As we shall see in the paragraphs below, just as the Old Testament scriptures which speak of God’s fiery jealousy are directed towards those who are alive at His coming, so too is the judgment of Heb. 10 meant for those who are alive at His coming.
What is the “judgment” spoken of in Heb. 10? There is no evidence of judgment having to do with salvation in this context. So what is this judgment? Heb. 9:27 speaks of a judgment “that is appointed unto men”. Bearing in mind that this is a judgment that is not unto loss of salvation, and that it is spoken of in Hebrews, let us search the scriptures for the answer to that question: what is the judgment of Heb. 10:27 and 9:27?
Heb. 9:27-28, “Even as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: so Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many: and unto them that look for Him shall He appear the second time without sin, unto salvation”. On the surface this verse does indeed seem to suggest that there will be a judgment after death. But if we look only at the surface there are several difficulties with this verse. First of all, as Paul makes very clear in I Cor. 15:51-53, “we shall not all sleep”, i.e. not all will die. Secondly, with the exception of the unbelievers of the tribulation, there are no Scriptures that say that the unbeliever will be raised for judgment. In fact, we are told just the opposite, i.e. “They will not awake, nor be raised out of their sleep ” (Job 14:12). (Please see the paper on this web-site Will Unbelievers Be Raised For Judgment? for proof of the fact that, except for the unbeliever of the tribulation, unbelievers will not be raised for judgment.) How are we to understand this passage in Hebrews 9?
In order to correctly understand this passage we must understand which judgment the writer of Hebrews had in mind in verse 27. A structure of verses 27-28 will give us that judgment.
A. men will die once B. the judgment
A1 Christ was offered once for sins
B1 the second coming
I believe that items B. (the judgment) and B 1 (the second coming) of this structure will show that the judgment referred to in verse 27 is the judgment at His second coming. That judgment is the judgment of Israel. That judgment is described in, among other scriptures, Ezekiel 20:37-38, “And I will cause you to pass under the rod, and I will bring you into the bond of the covenant: And I will purge out from among you the rebels, and them that transgress against Me: I will bring them forth out of the country where they sojourn and they shall not entrance into the land of Israel…”. There is no resurrection associated with that judgment, it is a judgment of those who will be gathered from out of the nations.
The judgment of Heb. 9 and 10 is the judgment of Israel who are alive at His second coming as to whether they will be allowed entrance into the Land of Israel for millennial blessings. It is a not a judgment of whether believers will lose their salvation. It is a judgment of who will be worthy to enter the Land for millennial blessings.
“HE WHO ENDURES TO THE END”
Matt. 24:13, “But he that shall endure unto the end shall be saved”. There are two questions that must be asked. 1) “Endures unto the end” of what? And 2) that person will be saved from what?
The context will answer our first question .The context is obviously about the great tribulation. Note verses 15-16, “When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place…..then let them which be in Judea flee into the hills” The answer to our first question is that he endures to the end of the tribulation will be saved.
Our second question asks, what will he that endures to the end be saved from? The paper on this web-site An Overview Of The End Times will show that immediately after the tribulation, the Lord will mete out His wrath in the day of the Lord. The rapture will save all believers from that wrath. In other words, he who endures to the end of the tribulation will be saved from the day of God’s wrath by the rapture.
Matt. 10:22 also uses the phrase “he that endureth to the end”. “And ye shall be hated of all men for My name’s sake; but he that endureth to the end shall be saved”. Is Matt. 10:22 also a tribulation passage? We read in verse 21, “And the brother shall deliver up the brother to death and the father the child; and the children shall rise up against their parents, and cause them to be put to death”. Let us compare that with Luke 21:16. Luke 21:16 is a tribulation passage which is proved by verse 12, “But before all these (the “fearful sights and great signs” from heaven, i.e. the signs of the day of the Lord), they shall lay their hands on you, and persecute you, delivering you up to the synagogues, and into prisons….”. We read in this context verse 16, “and ye shall be betrayed both by parents and brethren, and kinsfolks, and friends…..”.
In short, we know that Luke 21:16 is in the context of the tribulation. Luke 21:16 tells us the same thing as Matt. 10:22, therefore Matt. 10:22 is also a tribulation passage. Therefore, the same is true of the phrase “he who endures to the end” of Matt. 10:16 as was true of Matt. 24:13, i.e. he who endures to the end of the tribulation will be saved from the day of God’s wrath by the rapture.
“TWO SIDES OF A TRUTH THAT GIVE US A PERFECT WHOLE”
PHILIPPIANS 3:11
We read in Phil 3:11, “If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead”. This verse seems to be saying that Paul was not sure he would be raised, i.e. that he might lose his salvation. But we have seen several passages that tell us that no saved person could lose his salvation. How are we to understand this verse? There are no contradictions in the Word of God, so we must look a little deeper at this passage.
The title of this section is a quote from Charles Welch taken from his article called “Second Step”. He writes, “Meanwhile his (Paul’s) ‘confidence’ in Philippians one and his ‘diffidence’ in Philippians three give us the two sides of truth that give us a perfect whole”. To what does Mr. Welch refer when he wrote of “Paul’s confidence”? He is referring to Phil. 1:6 where we read, “Being confident of this very thing, that He Which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ”. If Paul was so confident that Christ will continue the good work in the Philippian believers until resurrection in the day of Jesus Christ, how then is he so lacking in confidence as to his own resurrection? Let us examine the concept of two sides of a truth giving us a perfect whole.
Several things in the Bible seem to contradict themselves unless we see them as “two sides of a truth that give us a perfect whole” or opposite sides of the same coin. Take for example faith as opposed to the Law of Moses for justification. In Galatians 2:15 Paul writes, “We who are Jews by birth and not Gentile sinners know that a man is not justified by observing the law……” But in Romans 2:13 he writes, “For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God’s sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous.” Is this a contradiction? Of course not, it is simply “two sides of truth that give us a perfect whole”. That is to say, it is faith in Christ that makes one righteous, but the law was given to Israel to obey, and their obedience showed their faith in the One Who gave them that law. By obeying the law the individual Israelite showed his faith in Christ and that faith made him just.
Let us consider another example of “two sides of a truth that give us a perfect whole”. Eph. 2:8-9 reads, “For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith-and this not from yourselves, it is the gift of God-not by works, so that no one can boast”. But James writes in James 2:24, “You see that a person is justified by what he does and not by faith alone”. There is no contradiction here. That is to say, one is justified by faith, but “faith without works is dead”. This is another example of “two sides of a truth that give us a perfect whole”, two sides of the same coin.
Paul also writes in Philippians, “……Work out your own salvation with fear and trembling”, (Phil 2:12). Did he mean that we are not saved by grace but by works? Of course not; he meant good works must accompany true faith. Again, “two sides of a truth that give us a perfect whole”. I’m sure the reader can think of other examples of Bible doctrine in which two sides of a truth give us a perfect whole.
Paul’s confidence in resurrection is expressed several times in his writings. See for example Eph. 1:6, “And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus”. Note that Paul writes of resurrection in the past tense. This is the use of the figure of speech “”Heterosis”. It is used to express the absolute certainty that what has been promised will indeed be fulfilled. Note also Col. 3:1, “If ye then be risen with Christ…”. Again, note the tense.
The “diffidence” of Phil 3 is the uncertainty of attaining resurrection. In Ephesians Paul is certain of resurrection, in Philippians three he is uncertain of attaining it. Is this a contradiction? Of course not! It is “two sides of truth that give us a perfect whole”.
In his article mentioned above in the section called “Second Step”, Mr. Welch gives his reasons for preferring the R.V., so I will quote that version here. “Not that I have already attained or am already made perfect, but I press on if so be that I may apprehend that for which also I was apprehended by Christ Jesus”. What was it that Paul was apprehended for by Christ? Paul was apprehended by Christ for resurrection life. And yet Paul writes that he had not “already attained” it. Again, in this one verse we see two sides of the same resurrection coin. On one side of the coin we see that Paul was hoping to “attain” resurrection. And on the other side of the same coin Paul sees that Christ had already “apprehended” him for resurrection.
ROMANS 2:5
Some believe that Rom. 2:5 says that one can lose his salvation. That verse reads, “But after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up unto thyself wrath against the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God”. As we consider the context however, I trust the reader will see that here too, the works side of the “coin” is in view.
Rom. 2:13 reads, “For not the hearer of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified“. Now let us compare that with Rom. 3:20-21, “Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in His sight…..But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested being witnessed by the law and the prophets; even the righteousness of God, which is by faith of Jesus Christ…..”.
There seems to be an apparent contradiction in these passages. In Romans 2 Paul wrote that it is the “doers of the law”, (i.e. works) that shall be justified. But in the very next chapter he wrote that “by the deeds of the law” none will be justified.
There are, of course, no contradictions in the Word of God. Both are absolutely true. That is to say that one’s faith is proved by their works, that’s what the passage in Romans 2 is about. But it is equally true that one is made just by faith, not by works. There are, in these two passages, two sides of the very same coin, one without the other is incomplete. That “coin” is that one is saved by grace through faith, and that one’s works prove that he has faith, or in the case of Romans 2:5, that he does not have faith.
In short, Romans 2 is about one proving his faith by his works. Those who show by their works that they do not have faith were, of course, never saved. You cannot lose what you never had.
NEW TESTAMENT PASSAGES THAT REFER TO UNBELIEVERS
ROMANS 1:24
Romans 1:24, “….wherefore, God also gave them up”. Who were these that God “gave up”, and what does it mean that He gave them up? Let’s address the second question first, as that is in the next phrase, He “gave them up to uncleanness”. That is to say, He just allowed them to live their lives, but He would have nothing more to do with them. Let us look at the context to decide if these people whom God had given up were saved.
Some have jumped to the conclusion that because we read in verse 21 that they “knew God” that they were saved. But the context will simply not bear that interpretation. Again, let us look at who these people were.
We read in verses 21-25, “Because that when they knew God, they glorified Him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools. and changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and four-footed beasts, and creeping things. wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts. to dishounour their own bodies between themselves; who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more that the Creator, Who is blessed for ever…”. Were these people ever believers? Let us continue in this same context for further evidence as to whether these people were ever believers.
We read in Rom. 1:26-32, “for this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: and likewise also the men, leaning the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet. and even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient: Being filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy murder, debate, deceit, malignity; whisperers, backbiters, haters of God, despiteful, proud, boasters, inventors of evil things, disobedient to parents, without understanding, covenant breakers , without natural affection, implacable, unmerciful; who knowing the judgment of God, that they which commit such things are worthy of death, not only do the same, but have pleasure in them that do them”.
Does this sound like people who have the new nature which is the guarantee of resurrection life? No, it does not. But one might object, it says that they “knew God”. I believe that Rom. 1:19-20 will add some light to that objection, “Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them. For the invisible things of Him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even, His eternal power and Godhead”. The point is that these people knew about God, but their lives proved beyond a shadow of a doubt that they did not acknowledge Him as God.
One other point should be made. James tells us that “faith without works is dead”. In other words, if one says he has faith but his life does not show it, he does not have faith. I will leave it to the reader to decide if the people of Romans one showed that they had faith. If the reader believes as I do, that they did not have faith, then the reader must agree that these people were never saved.
II THESSALONIANS 2:3
II Thess. 2:3, “Let no man deceive you by any means; for that day shall not come except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition”. The “man of sin” is, of course, the antichrist. The argument is that those who are deceived into following the antichrist are believers, and because they follow Satan, who controls the antichrist, they will lose their salvation. But who are those that will be deceived? Verse 10, “And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved”. Those that are deceived had never been saved. The phrase, “them that perish” is defined in the Companion Bible as, “the perishing. See the same phrase in I Cor. 1:18, II Cor. 2:15 and 4:3”. Let us look at those passages.
I Cor. 1:18, “For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish, foolishness…”. Here it is clear that them that are perishing are the unsaved.
II Cor. 2:15, “For we are unto God a sweet savour of Christ, in them that are saved and in them that perish”. Here again, it is clear that Paul is referring to them that are perishing as the unsaved .
II Cor. 4:3, “For if our gospel be hid it is to them that are lost”. The phrase, “them that are lost” is the same in the Greek as in the other verses quoted, and refers obviously, to them that are perishing, i.e. the unsaved.
II Thess. 2:3 therefore speaks of the unsaved who will be deceived by the antichrist, not the saved who will lose their salvation.
GALATIANS 5:21
Gal. 5:21 is another verse that is purported to teach that one can lose his/her salvation. , “…..they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God”. There is nothing in the context to suggest that “they which do such things” are believers. To say that those who “do such things” are believers is pure conjecture. Therefore, this verse does not suggest that believers will lose their salvation and will not inherit the kingdom of God. It does say that some will not inherit the kingdom of God. It is more reasonable to assume (and assume we must, because we are not specifically told) that those that do such things are unbelievers.
HEBREWS 3:11-12
Heb. 3:11-12 is another verse which is sometimes quoted as proof that one can lose their salvation. It reads, “So I sware in My wrath, ‘They shall not enter into My rest’; Take heed brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief, in departing from the living God”. The fact that the warning is addressed to some who may have “unbelief” proves that it is not the believer that is in danger, it is the unbeliever.
II PETER 2:20-21
II Peter 2:20-21, “For if after they have escaped the pollutions of the world through the knowledge of the Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ, they are again entangled therein and overcome, the latter end is worse with them than the beginning. For it had been better for them not to have known the way of righteousness than, after they have known it, to turn from the holy commandment delivered unto them”.
To whom does Peter refer by the pronouns “they” and “them”? For the answer to that question we must go all the way back to verse 9 where we read, “The Lord knoweth how to deliver the godly out of temptations, and to reserve the unjust unto the day of judgment to be punished”. Note the contrast between the “godly” who will be delivered out of temptations, and the “unjust” who will be reserved unto judgment. Let us see if there is a thread that will lead from the unjust of verse 9 to the “they” and “them” of verses 20 and 21.
Verse 10, “But chiefly them that walk after the flesh in the lust of uncleanness….Presumptious are they…”. The “them” and the “they” here refers back to the unjust of verse 9.
Verse 12, “But these ….”. The “these” refer back to the unjust of verse 9.
Verse 13, “….as they count it pleasure to riot”. Here again, “they” refers back to the unjust of verse 9.
Verses 13-16 describe those spoken of in the pervious verses. Then in verse 17 we read of “These are wells without water. Again, “these” are the unjust of verse 9.
Verse 18, “For when they speak great swelling words”. Here too, the “they” refers back to the unjust of verse 9.
And verse 19 speaks of “they themselves are the servants of corruption”. Once again “they” refers to the unjust of verse 9.
We have followed the thread from verse 9 to verses 20-21 and have seen that those for whom “the latter end is worse with them than the beginning” are the unjust, i.e. the unsaved, not the saved. But what of the fact that Peter wrote in verse 20 that they had “escaped the pollutions of the world through the knowledge of the Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ”? Does that mean that Peter was writing about the saved?
Let us consider the last phrase of verse 21 which reads, “to turn from the holy commandment delivered unto them”. The subject of “the commandment” brings us to works, i.e. obedience to the holy commandment. And that in turn brings us to James’ point that “faith without works is dead”. That is to say, if those about whom Peter wrote were true believers rather than just knowledgeable about the Lord, they would not have become “entangled” with the pollution of the world again.
In short, those about whom Peter wrote in this passage had some knowledge of Jesus Christ, and had known the way of righteousness, but they proved by their actions that they had not been true believers.
PASSAGES THAT SPEAK OF LOSS OF REWARDS, NOT LOSS OF SALVATION
I CORINTHIANS 3:17
I Cor. 3:17, “If any man defile the Temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the Temple of God is holy, which temple ye are.” Let us consider the context. Verses 14-15, “If any man’s work abide which he hath built thereupon, he shall receive a reward”. If any man’s work shall be burned, he shall suffer loss; but he himself shall be saved; yet so as by fire”. It is clear that verse 17 is in the context of rewards. But how are we to understand the phrase “him shall God destroy”?
The Greek word translated “destroy” is “phthiro”. It is used nine times in the New Testament, and is translated “corrupt” in all but the two occurrences in I Cor. 3:17 where it is translated”defile” and “destroy”. If, for the sake of consistency we translate the word in I Cor. 3 the same as it had been translated in every other occurrence it would read, “If any man corrupt the Temple of God, him shall God corrupt“. Given that this verse comes in the context of rewards, I believe that is a better translation. And given that we are quite specifically told that “he (whose work shall be burned) himself shall be saved“, we must conclude that I Cor. 3:17 does not speak of a man losing his salvation, it speaks of him losing his rewards.
I TIMOTHY 4:15-16
I Tim. 4:15-16, “Meditate upon these things; give thyself wholly to them; that thy profiting may appear to all. Take heed unto thyself, and unto the doctrine; continue in them: for in doing this thou shalt both save thyself, and them that hear thee”. Let us consider the Greek word translated in verse 15, “profiting”. The Greek word is, “prokopee” and it is used three times in the New Testament. Phil. 1:12, “unto the furtherance of the gospel”. Phil. 1:25, ” for your furtherance and joy of faith”. And lastly, in I Tim. 4:15. So the meaning is “furtherance“. The NIV translation of verse 15 is, “Be diligent in these matters; give yourself wholly to them so that everyone may see your progress“. Progress towards what? Salvation is not a matter of progress, it is a matter of accepting Christ, which Timothy had already done. What is a matter of progress is the life that leads to rewards. Because Timothy’s salvation (as is everyone’s) based on the acceptance of Christ by faith, and not a question of progress, I believe that this passage is speaking of progress toward rewards in resurrection life.
I TIMOTHY 5:24-25
I Tim. 5:24-25, “Some men’s sins are open beforehand, going before to judgment; and some men they follow after. Likewise also the good works of some are manifest beforehand; and they that are otherwise cannot be hid”. Is this a judgment of the believer for salvation? I believe that the fact that verse 25 speaks of “the good works of some” points to a judgment of rewards. Good works has nothing to do with salvation, but it does have to do with rewards. So when the believer is judged for what rewards he may or may not receive, his sins and his good works will be considered.
II TIMOTHY 2-11-13
II Tim. 2:11-13, “It is a faithful saying saying:’For if we be dead with Him, we shall also live with Him: If we suffer, we shall also reign with Him: if we deny Him, He also will deny us; if we believe not, yet He abideth faithful: He cannot deny Himself”. What does it mean that He cannot deny Himself? He cannot deny Who He is. For one thing, God cannot lie. To break the promise of salvation to those who believe would break that promise, God cannot do that. But there seems to be a contradiction in this passage. On the one hand we read that “if we deny Him, He also will deny us”. But on the other hand we read that “He cannot deny Himself”.
What does it mean when we read, “if we deny Him, He also will deny us”? That He will deny us comes in verse 12. Let’s look at the entire verse. “If we suffer, we shall also reign with Him: if we deny Him, He also will deny us”. Suffering does not produce salvation. But if we endure suffering in faith we will receive rewards. But if, in our suffering, we deny Him, He will deny us the rewards of a faithful life.
Therefore, I believe that if we do not continue in faith He will deny us rewards. But He cannot deny Himself. That is to say, .He cannot deny salvation to the members of the church which make up His body.
If we do not see the denial in terms of rewards, we have a contradiction with the verse in this same context that tells us that “He cannot deny Himself”.
PASSAGES THAT HAVE TO DO WITH LOSS OF TEMPORAL LIVES, NOT ETERNAL LIVES
LUKE 13:3-4
Luke 13:3-4, “I tell you, ‘Nay’; but except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish. Of those eighteen, upon whom the tower in Siloam fell, and slew them, think ye that they were sinners above all men that dwelt in Jerusalem”? This passage is speaking of those who died in accidents and warning of lose of temporal lives. This passage is not speaking of losing salvation. Therefore, it has nothing to say about salvation or lose of salvation.
JAMES 1:14-15
James 1:14-15, “But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed; then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin; and sin; when it is finished, bringeth forth death”. The phrase “and sin when it is finished, bringeth forth death” is not a new thought. Paul expressed the same thought in Romans 6:20-21, “For when ye were the servants of sin, ye were free from righteousness. What fruit had ye then in those things whereof ye are now ashamed? for the end of those things is death”. It is clear that neither of these passages has to do with loss of salvation. The only difference is that Paul makes it more clear that it has to do with the loss of temporal life.
“IF” PASSAGES
COLOSSIANS 3:1
Col. 3:1, “If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God”. The word “if” (Ge. “ei”) gives the impression that perhaps not all believers are risen with Christ. But we read of the word “if” of Col. 3:1 in the Companion Bible Appendix 118, 2 a, “Followed by the Indicative Mood, the hypothesis is assumed as an actual fact, the condition being unfulfilled, but no doubt being thrown upon the supposition”. If Paul, through the Holy Spirit, wanted to convey a condition upon resurrection, he would have used the Greek word “ean”, not the one he did use, i.e. “ei”.
I CORINTHIANS 15:2
I Cor. 15:2 uses the same Greek word translated “if” as in Col. 3:1 and, of course, tells us the same truth, i.e. the “if” is “assumed as an actual fact”. That verse reads, “By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain”.
Let us also consider the phrase, ” unless ye have believed in vain”. Is there such a thing as believing “in vain”? Of course not. To what then is Paul referring? I believe that Paul is referring to the fact that some among the Corinthians had been saying that there is no resurrection of the dead. We read in I Cor. 15:12, “….how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?” We read in verse 14, “If Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain“. Obviously, neither Paul’s preaching or their belief in Christ was in vain. Paul’s point is that if there is no resurrection, that would make his preaching and their belief was in vain. So too in verse 2 where we read, “unless you have believed in vain” the point is that if what some had been saying was true, i.e. that there is no resurrection, that would mean that their faith was in vain.
CONCLUSION
For the most part, I have chosen the passages used by those who do believe that one can lose their salvation. If I have missed some that the reader feels is compelling I would appreciate knowing of them.
This paper is written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to respond to this paper, please e-mail at: [email protected]
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