Untitled Document
WILL THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN BE ESTABLISHED BEFORE THE SECOND COMING OF CHRIST?
Some students of God’s Word believe that the kingdom of Heaven is not the millennial reign and will be established in an age that follows the dispensation of the mystery, but precedes the second coming of Christ. I disagree with that view and will present the arguments for my view that the kingdom of Heaven is the millennial reign of Christ, and will come after His return to earth. I will also present arguments for the pre-advent kingdom of Heaven and my reasons for disagreeing with those arguments. Of course, as with any other doctrine, not everyone who holds to the fundamental doctrine will agree on every point of that doctrine. I would appreciate knowing of any arguments that have not been addressed so that this paper may be as thorough as possible.
I will present the following arguments that, in my opinion, prove that the kingdom of Heaven will be established after the return of Christ.
ACTS 3:19-21
“BEHOLD, I COME QUICKLY”
EZEKIEL 43:4-7
“UPON MY HOLY MOUNTAIN”
ACTS 3:19-21
“Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord; and He shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you: Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all His holy prophets since the world began”.
Does the phrase “times of refreshing” refer to the same exact time as the phrase “the times of restitution”? I believe it does. Leaving the question of when, in relation to Christ’s return this will occur aside for the moment, let us consider the character of each word. The Greek word translated “refreshing” occurs only once in the New Testament but a related word, translated “restore” occurs in Acts 1:6 where the disciples asked the Lord if He would at that time restore the kingdom to Israel. In other words, the English translation “refreshing” and the related word translated “restore” give us a good idea of the way it was intended to be understood.
But what about “the times of restitution”? “Restitution” implies something that is brought back to what is intended. That does not carry the exact same meaning as “refreshing”/”restore”. I believe that the phrase “times of restitution” emphasizes the truth that the kingdom of Israel had failed badly since the glory days of Solomon, but when the Lord returns He will reestablish it far beyond the glory of the times of Solomon. So the “times of restitution” and “the times of refreshing” are two different aspects of the same time.
We read in verse 19, “….that your sins will be blotted out when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord“. The most obvious reading of the phrase “shall come from the presence of the Lord” is that the Lord will be personally present for the times of refreshing. Some have argued, however, that the word translated “presence” does not always mean personal presence, and that is quite true. They suggest that the presence spoken of in 3:19 refers to His presence in heaven. But verse 20, in my opinion explains that it is indeed personal presence on earth as we read, “And He shall send Jesus Christ……”. We have in the space of two verses the phrase “the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord” and the phrase “and He shall send“. When one considers “presence” and “shall send” in the same thought, I believe the only conclusion possible is that the “presence” will be a personal presence when Christ is sent to earth.
As mentioned above, I believe that “the times of refreshing” refer to the same time period as “the times of restitution”, but that each term emphasizes a different aspect of that time. That means of course, that when we read in verse 19 of the times of refreshing, we should expect to read that the times of refreshing will occur at the same time relative to Christ’s return as the times of restitution, i.e. after the return of Christ. And that is exactly what we do read.
We read in Acts 3:21 of Jesus Christ, “Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things…..”. This verse tells us that Christ will remain in heaven until the times of restitution. In other words, when the times of restitution come, heaven will no longer receive Christ, i.e. He will return to earth.
I believe a discussion of the Greek word translated “until” would be helpful. The Greek word is “akri” and the first occurrence is found in Matt. 24:38 where we read, “For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark”. I think we may safely assume that the eating and drinking etc. stopped after Noe entered the ark, as that is when the rains came. That is to say, the conditions ceased after the time indicated by the word “until”, i.e. the eating and drinking etc. ceased at the time indicated by the word “until”. So too, when the times of restitution come the heavens will cease from receiving Christ, and He will return to earth.
Let us consider a few more verses in which the Holy Spirit uses the same word so that we might come to a correct understanding of it. For example it is used in Luke 21:24, “……and Jerusalem shall be trodden of the Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled”. That is to say, when the “times of the Gentiles” are fulfilled they will stop treading down Jerusalem. Again, when the times of restitution come the heavens will stop receiving Christ, and He will return to earth.
Gal. 4:1-2, “Now I say, That the heir, as long as he is a child, differeth nothing from a servant, though he be lord of all; but is under tutors and governors until the time appointed of the father”. Here too, the child will no longer be under tutors and governors when the appointed time comes. So too, the heavens will no longer receive Christ when the times of restitution will come and He will return to earth.
With the Scriptural based meaning of the word translated “until” in mind, let us consider the phrase “Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things”. This phrase tells us that heaven will no longer receive Christ when the times of restitution will come. Obviously, when heaven no longer receives Christ, He will return to earth. Therefore, the times of restitution will be seen when Christ comes to earth.
Some have suggested that there should be an ellipsis to complete Acts 3:21, which should read, “until the times of restitution (is completed“). That would mean that Christ will remain in heaven until after the times of restitution. That would, of course, make the times of restitution before the return of Christ. Let us consider this phrase once again.
“Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things”. As noted above the word “until” denotes the end of the time in which Christ is received in heaven, it does not denote the end of the time of restitution. But by adding the phrase suggested by some, (“until the times of restitution is completed“) the ellipsis completely changes the meaning of this verse from what is says. In other words, this verse tells us that Christ will remain in heaven until heaven no longer receives Him. And when it no longer receives Him He will return to earth and the times of restitution will come. But the ellipsis suggested by some tells us that Christ will remain in heaven until the end of the times of restitution “is completed”. That is simply not what this verse tells us.
We have in this one passage the Scriptural evidence that Christ will come to earth before the millennium. Let us look at this key passage one more time. “Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord; and He shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you: Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all His holy prophets since the world began”.
The times of refreshing will come from the personal presence of Christ on earth when God shall send Jesus Christ. And when Christ will no longer be received in heaven, He will come to earth and the time of restitution will have come.
“BEHOLD, I COME QUICKLY”
There are several verses in Revelation in which we read, “Behold I come quickly” or similar phrases to that effect. We read, for example in Rev. 3:11, “Behold I come quickly“. In Rev. 22:7, 12 and 20 we read “I come quickly“. The Greek word translated “quickly” is “taku”. The first occurrence is in Matt. 5:25, “Agree with thine adversary quickly, whilst thou art in the way with him….. The NIV has, “Settle matters quickly with your adversary who is taking you to court”. The same word is used in Rev. 11:14, “The second woe is past; and behold the third woe cometh quickly“. I believe that when we read in Revelation that the Lord comes “quickly”, it can only mean that there will not be much time between the time of the writing of Revelation and the time of the Lord’s return.
But if the kingdom of Heaven is hundreds of years before the return of Christ, those words have no meaning at all. That is to say, if there were going to be a period of hundreds of years before Christ’s return, John could not possibly have written that Christ would return “quickly”. Just as in Rev. 11:14 when the second woe will come quickly after the first woe, so too, Christ’s return will come “quickly” after the writing of Revelation. (Of course, the dispensation of the mystery has intervened, but John knew nothing of that when he wrote Revelation.)
“UPON MY HOLY MOUNTAIN”
Ps. 2:6 reads in part, “Yet have I set My king upon My holy hill of Zion“. But verse 4 of this Psalm reads in part, “He that sitteth in the heavens shall laugh: the Lord shall have them in derision”. The question is: will the Lord reign from heaven as verse four implies to those who believe in the pre-advent kingdom, or will the Lord rule from earth. We are told that He will rule from His “holy hill of Zion”. Our question is answered once we determine whether His “holy hill” is on earth or in heaven.
Is. 27:13 helps establish the fact that “the holy mountain” is on earth. ” And it shall come to pass in that day, that the great trumpet shall be blown, and they shall come which were ready to perish in the land of Assyria, and the outcasts in the land of Egypt and shall worship the Lord in the holy mount at Jerusalem“. This verse speaks of those in the land of Assyria and in the land of Egypt, both of whom are obviously on earth. And Isaiah specifically tells us that the holy mount is at Jerusalem. The new Jerusalem does not come into view until after the millennial reign of Christ, so it is not the new Jerusalem that is in view here, it is the Jerusalem on earth. Obviously, if Jerusalem is on earth and the holy mount is in Jerusalem, the holy mount must be on earth.
Is. 56:7 is yet another passage that makes it abundantly clear that the holy mountain is on earth. “Even them will I bring to My holy mountain, and make them joyful in My house of prayer: their burnt offerings and their sacrifices shall be accepted upon Mine altar: for Mine house shall be called an house of prayer for all people”. There will be sacrifices and burnt offerings in this place. Surely there will not be sacrifices and burnt offerings in heaven. Therefore, we must conclude that they will be on earth. If the sacrifices and burnt offerings will be on earth, so too is the house of the Lord on earth, and so too is “My holy mountain” on earth.
Is. 57:13 reads in part, “but he that putteth his trust in Me shall posses the land, and shall inherit My holy mountain”. Here the “holy mountain” is connected to possessing the land. Here again, it is an indication that the holy mountain is on earth.
Ezek. 20:40, “For in Mine holy mountain, in the mountain of the height of Israel, saith the Lord God, there shall all the house of Israel, all of them in the land, serve Me: there will I accept them, and there will I require your offerings, and the firstfruits of your oblations, with all your holy things”. The Lord promises in this verse that He will accept them “there”. Where? “In the land”. Because He will accept them in the Land His “holy mountain” must be in the Land, i.e. on earth.
Dan. 9:16, “O Lord, according to all Thy righteousness I beseech Thee let Thine anger and Thy fury be turned away from Thy city Jerusalem, Thy holy mountain: because of our sins, and for the iniquities of our fathers, Jerusalem and Thy People are become a reproach to all that are about us”. Unless one is ready to say that those around Jerusalem who hold Jerusalem as a reproach, are in heaven, we must conclude that Jerusalem and Israel are on earth. If Jerusalem is on earth, so too is the holy mountain.
Because God will rule from His holy mountain, and the holy mountain is on earth, we must conclude that God will rule from earth.
But what about verse 4 of Ps. 2 which states that “He that sitteth in the heavens shall laugh: the Lord shall have them in derision”? The note in the Companion Bible on the word “Lord” tells us that the primitive texts have “Jehovah”, not “adoni” as the later texts have. Jehovah is God and God is spirit. Christ is both Jehovah and the manifestation of Jehovah. So as Jehovah in His office of King reigns on earth, Jehovah, Who is spirit will sit in heaven.
EZEKIEL 43:4-7
We read in Ezek. 43:4-7, “And the glory of the Lord came into the house by the way of the gate whose prospect is toward the east, so the spirit took me up, and brought me into the inner court; and, behold, the glory of the Lord filled the house. and I heard Him speaking unto me out of the house; and the man stood by me. and He said unto me, ‘Son of man, the place of My throne, and the place of the soles of My feet, where I will dwell in the midst of the children of Israel for ever; and My holy name, shall the house of Israel no more defile neither they nor their kings, by their whoredom, nor by the carcasses of their kings in their high places'”.
It has been suggested by some who believe in the pre-advent kingdom of heaven that most, if not all, of the Old Testament prophecies of end times blessings speak of the pre-advent kingdom, rather than the millennial reign of Christ. It has also been suggested that because Rev. 20, which speaks of the millennial reign, does not include the existence of the temple, that there will be no temple in the millennial reign. I will address the following two questions: 1) Will there be a temple in the millennium? 2) Is Ezek. 43:4-7 a passage about the millennium or is it about a supposed pre-advent kingdom?
Surely the phrases “the glory of the Lord came into the house” and “the glory of the Lord filled the house” suggest that it is indeed the temple that is being spoken of in this passage. How then can we determine if this is the millennial temple or the temple of a pre-advent kingdom? I believe that a study of the phrase, “soles of My feet” will help us answer that question.
We read in this passage that the Lord will place the “soles” of His feet in His house. If this does not mean a personal presence then I see no meaning in that phrase. So we have in this passage the proof that there will be a temple at the time that Christ is personally present, i.e. in the millennium. That is to say, the phrase “His house” obviously refers to the temple, and the phrase, “soles of My feet” obviously refer to the personal presence in the temple. That being the case, we have the Scriptural evidence that there will indeed be a temple in the millennium.
For further evidence that there will indeed be a temple in the millennium let us turn to Rev. 7:15. Verse 14 speaks of those who were martyred in the tribulation and in the next verse we read, “Therefore are they (the martyred of the tribulation) before the throne of God, and serve Him day and night in His Temple….”.
But let us consider the other occurrences of the phrase “soles of My feet” as it will tell us even more as to exactly when, i.e. the millennium or a pre-advent kingdom, that God will place the soles of His feet in His “house”.
Deut. 11:24, “Every place whereon the soles of your feet shall tread shall be yours: from the wilderness and Lebanon, from the river, the river Euphrates even unto the uttermost sea shall your coast be”. This is God’s promise to Israel. The point however is that this phrase “the soles of your feet” obviously carries with it the idea of conquering the lands upon which their feet will tread.
Joshua. 3:13, “And it shall come to pass as soon as the soles of the feet of the priests that bear the ark of the Lord, the Lord of all the earth, shall rest in the waters of Jordan, that the waters of Jordan shall be cut off from the waters that come down from above; and they shall stand upon an heap”. The idea of conquering is less evident here, but I believe that in this verse the Lord conquers the waters of the Jordan so that the ark may be carried over the Jordan.
Joshua 4:18, “And it came to pass when the priests that bare the ark of the covenant of the Lord were come up out of the midst of Jordan, and the soles of the priests’ feet were lifted up unto the dry land, that the waters of Jordan returned unto their place and flowed over all his banks as they did before”.
I Kings 5:3, “Thou knowest how that David my father could not build an house unto the name of the Lord his God for the wars which were about him on every side, until the Lord put them under the soles of his feet”. In this verse the idea of conquering is evident.
Is. 60:14, “The sons also of them that afflicted thee shall come bending unto thee; and all they that despised thee shall bow themselves down at the soles of thy feet; and they shall call thee, ‘The city of the Lord, The Zion of the Holy One of Israel”. Here too the idea of conquering is obvious.
Mal. 4:3, “And ye shall tread down the wicked; for they shall be ashes under the soles of your feet in that day that I shall do this saith the Lord of hosts”. Here too, the idea of conquering is obvious in the use of the phrase “the soles of their feet”.
Coming back to Ezek. 43:7, where we read, “the place of My throne, and the place of the soles of My feet, I believe that because the phrase is used of a conquering, we may conclude that it does indeed indicate not only a personal presence, but also a presence that comes from having conquered His enemies. Those enemies are not conquered until after the tribulation, i.e. in the day of God’s wrath also called “the day of the Lord“. Therefore, this passage must refer to the millennium which, of course, follows the day of the Lord in which God’s enemies will be conquered.
Let us consider the two questions posed above. 1) Will there be a temple in the millennium? The answer is fourfold. 1) The phrase “soles of My feet” does indeed suggest a personal presence, and all agree that Christ will be personally present for the millennium. 2) The phrase “soles of My feet” suggests a conquering of enemies, and the enemies of God are not conquered until after the tribulation. 3) The phrase ” the glory of the Lord filled the house” certainly suggests that it is the temple that Ezekiel has in mind. Therefore, the obvious conclusion is that there will be a temple in the millennium. 4) Rev. 7:15 tells us that the martyrs of the tribulation will serve God day and night in His temple“
2) Is Ezek. 43:4-7 a passage about the millennium or is it about a supposed pre-advent kingdom? Because the phrase “soles of My feet” means a personal presence that comes from having conquered His enemies, which will not be accomplished until after the tribulation and after the day of the Lord, I believe this passage must speak of His millennial reign.
I have tried to prove from Scripture that there will be a temple in the millennium and that Ezek. 43:4-7 is a passage about the millennium. Does this disprove the pre-advent kingdom position? Perhaps not, but it does, in my opinion, shed some light on one of the many difficulties with that view. Let me explain.
We read in Acts 3:21 of the “times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all His holy prophets since the world began”. Those who hold to the pre-advent kingdom position believe that most, if not all, the Old Testament prophecies which refer to the blessings of the end times, refer to the pre-advent kingdom. But Ezek. 43:4-7 clearly refers to the millennial reign. We have a situation where we are told in Rev. 20 of the one thousand year reign of Christ, but we are never told of a period in which God will rule from heaven. If the kingdom of Heaven, as suggested by some, is not the millennial reign, but an earlier age in which God will rule from heaven, there is absolutely no way in which to determine which passages refer to which period. That is to say, it is clear that Christ will rule the nations in the millennium, and we read of that specific time period. But we do not read of a specific time period in which God will rule from heaven. We are asked by the pre-advent position to insert a time period, not mentioned in God’s holy Word, and to assume that the prophecies about the blessings of the end times are to be fulfilled in this unmentioned time period. But, as we have seen, at least one prophecy, Ezek. 43:3-7 does not fit into the pre-advent kingdom and therefore must be about the millennial reign.
The following arguments for the pre-advent kingdom of Heaven will be discussed.
II THESS. 2:2
RESURRECTION
UNTIL I MAKE THINE ENEMIES THY FOOTSTOOL
“THE HEAVEN IS MY THRONE”
THE COMING OF ELIJAH BEFORE THE DAY OF THE LORD
THE PARABLES OF THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN
THE GREEK WORDS USED OF CHRIST’S SECOND COMING
WAS ACTS TWO THE BEGINNING OF THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN?
THE WRITINGS OF O.Q. SELLERS
MISCELLANEOUS PASSAGES
THE SEVENTY WEEKS OF DANIEL CHAPTER NINE
II THESS. 2:2 Day of the Lord
We read in II Thess. 2:1-3, “Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto Him, that ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter, as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition”.
According to the note in the Companion Bible the texts have “day of the Lord” instead of the “day of Christ”. In the context of this particular paper, it does not really influence the conclusion, but because the proponents of the pre-advent kingdom of Heaven seem to prefer “day of the Lord”, for the purposes of this paper, I will accept that phrase as the correct one.
In this passage Paul is telling the Thessalonians that what they had heard about Paul saying that the day of the Lord was “at hand” was not true. He seems to be saying that the day of the Lord is not at hand, and will not come until certain things have happened. But, we read in Matthew that John the Baptist proclaimed that “the kingdom of Heaven is at hand”. The day of the Lord immediately precedes the millennial reign of Christ. So the proponents of the pre-advent kingdom of Heaven point to an apparent contradiction between Paul and John the Baptist. That is to say, Paul writes that the day of the Lord is not at hand, and John the Baptist proclaimed that the kingdom of Heaven is at hand. Therefore, as the argument goes, the kingdom of Heaven which is at hand, must be something different than the millennium which comes after the day of the Lord and is not at hand.
On the surface that makes very good sense. The problem with that argument however, is that as we study the phrase translated “at hand” in Matthew and in II Thessalonians, we will discover that they are a translation of two very different words. The Greek word in Matthew 3:2 is “engizo” and the Greek word in II Thess. 2:2 is “enisteemi”. These two words have meanings that are quite different from each other. That will be proved as we study how the Holy Spirit uses the Greek words. Please note, I am not accepting the definitions of man, but the usage by the Holy Spirit for the definitions.
“Engizo”, the word used in Matthew’s Gospel is usually translated “draw nigh”, “at hand”, “approacheth”, came near”. The meaning is clear from the way it is used by the Holy Spirit, and we need no opinion from man as to its meaning.
“Enisteemi”, the Greek word translated “at hand” in II Thessalonians is used seven times in the New Testament. The first occurrence is in Romans 8:38, where we read, “For I am persuaded that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come…..”. In this verse, “enisteemi” is translated “present” and cannot mean “at hand”. Why? Because of the following phrase, “things to come”. If we translated “enisteemi: as “at hand” then the phrase ” things to come” is nothing more than a repetition because “at hand” implies things that will shortly come to pass. But it is clear that Paul’s argument includes both things present and things to come. Therefore, in Romans 8:38 “enisteemi” must mean “present”, i.e. things that are present, not things that are yet to come.
In I Cor, 3:22 we see the phrase “things present or things to come”. The same can be said of the use of “enisteemi” in this verse as was said above concerning Rom. 8:38. That is to say, it cannot mean “at hand” or it would render the phrase “things to come” as repetitious and meaningless.
The same Greek word is also used in I Cor. 7:26 where we read “it is good for the present distress”. Here again we have a correct translation for “enisteemi”. The context will show that the Greek word does not mean distress that is “at hand”, it means means distress that is present.
In Gal. 1:4 we read, “That He might deliver us from this present evil world”. This verse also uses “enisteemi”. The fact that Paul uses the phrase, “deliver us“, points to the conclusion that it is the present age that he has in mind.
In Heb. 9:9 we read, “Which was a figure for the time then present, in which were offered both gifts and sacrifices that could not make him that did the service perfect….”. “Enisteemi” is also used in this verse and again translated , “present”. The context will show that the “times then present” refers to Old Testament times. Because we cannot say that during Old Testament times Old Testament times were “at hand” or “near”, once again, the word cannot mean “at hand”.
We come now to the two times where “enisteemi” is not translated “present” in KJV, i.e. .II Tim. 3:1 and II Thess. 2:2. Both verses use the verb “enisteemi”, and conveys the sense of “being present“. We read in II Tim. 3:1, “This know also that in the last days perilous times shall come“. The sense II Tim. 3:1 is that in the last days perilous times will be present, but, of course, in English we would not say “perilous times will be present”, but “perilous times shall come”. But the meaning of this verse is clearly that in the last days, perilous times will be present, not that perilous times will be at at hand.
We come now to II Thess. 2:2, “the day of the Lord is…..”. There is absolutely no reason to assume that in this one verse the Greek word means “at hand” when in every other occurrence it obviously means “present”. Therefore, I believe that Paul is saying that they should not be troubled by false reports that the day of the Lord is present.
If that is indeed Paul’s meaning in this verse, and I believe that there is sufficient evidence to conclude that it is, then there is no contradiction between John the Baptist and Paul. John the Baptist’s message was that the “kingdom of Heaven is at Hand” and Paul’s message is that the day of the Lord is not present. That being the case, there is no need to assume that the kingdom of heaven is a different event then the millennial reign of Christ.
RESURRECTION
We read in the Bible of two times of resurrection apart from Christ’s resurrection, and only two. The first one will be at the second coming of Christ, “For the Lord Himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first” (I Thess. 4:16). The second resurrection will be after the end of the millennial reign, “But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished.…”. (Rev. 20:5). But the pre-advent kingdom of Heaven requires a resurrection before the second coming of Christ. Why? Because those who hold to that view believe that David will rule in the kingdom of Heaven, and David must be resurrected in order to do that. This argument, however, is not without merit as we do read in several passages in the Old Testament that David will reign in the future. I believe however, that David will reign on the Millennial throne as Christ’s regent, not on a pre-advent kingdom of Heaven throne. Please see the paper on this web-site, Will David Reign As Christ’s Regent On the Millennial Throne? for the Scriptural evidence of this belief. The proponents of the pre-advent kingdom believe that Ezek. 37, which speaks of the resurrection of Israel, refers to the resurrection for the supposed pre-advent kingdom, not the millennial reign. But again, Scripture never mentions a resurrection before the second coming of Christ.
We will look at the arguments that are presented to substantiate the claim that there will be a resurrection before the return of Christ.
The argument for a resurrection before the second coming of Christ is based on I Cor. 15:23 which reads, “But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ’s at His coming”. Part of the argument centers around the fact that there is no definite article. So that verse is literally, “But every man in his own order; Christ firstfruits”. This suggests to some that it is believers who are the firstfruits of resurrection, i.e. some believers will be resurrected before others. Let us consider that.
As mentioned above, part of the argument that verse 23 speaks of believers, not of Christ, as the firstruits, is based on the fact that the word “the” in verse 23 is not in the Greek. Let’s look once again at verse 23. “But every man in his own order; Christ firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ’s at His coming”. It is suggested that this should read, “But every man in his own order; Christ’s firstfruits”. In other words, by adding an apostrophe and making the proper noun “Christ” possessive case, it refers not to Christ, but to some believers (firstfruits) who will be raised before other believers. And by simply adding an apostrophe to indicate possessive case, the problem of no other resurrection being mentioned is solved. But we can also simply add a comma, so that it reads, “Christ, firstfruit”, (“But every man in his own order: Christ, firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ’s at His coming”.) How can we determine which is better, i.e. the apostrophe or the comma?. As always, by the context.
First of all, let us consider verse 20, “But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruit of them that slept”. Here Christ is actually referred to as “the firstfruit”. If Christ is the firstfruit in verse 20, He is the firstfuit of verse 23. That is to say, given that we are specifically told in verse 20 that it is Christ Who is “the firstfruit of them that slept”, I believe that verse 23 also refers to Christ as the “firstfruit”. “
Secondly, note the rest of this verse, “afterward they that are Christ’s at His coming”. The latter phrase speaks of “they that are Christ’s”. We cannot put only some believers into the class of “they that are Christ’s” because all believers are Christ’s. But if we see Christ as the firstfruit from the dead, and believers, i.e. “they that are His”, as another class of those raised from the dead, all is clear. It is for the reasons stated above that I believe that the “firstfruit” is Christ.
Much is made of the Greek word translated “order” in the phrase “but every man in his own order” (I Cor. 15:23). It is said that that word is a military term and that Paul uses that word to indicate distinct “bands” or “classes”. I can agree with that. But what are those distinct classes? Are they, as some believe, different classes of believers to be raised in a specific order? Are there different classes of believers or are we all “in Christ”? To answer these questions we must look at the immediate context.
Verse 12 sets out the reason for this section of I Cor. 15, “Now if Christ be preached that He rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead? If there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen” And in verses 17-18 we read, “And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins. Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished”.
It is clear that some had been teaching the false doctrine that there is no resurrection of the dead. Paul’s argument is that if there is no resurrection, then Christ is not raised. In verse 20 Paul sets out his argument that there is a resurrection, and that argument is based solely on the fact that Christ has been raised from the dead.
Let us now return to our question: who makes up these “distinct classes” indicated by the word “order”? I believe that the context is all about the fact that because Christ was raised from the dead, believers will also be raised. That is to say, Christ’s resurrection is key to the entire question. Paul’s argument is that because Christ had been raised, that proves that there is a resurrection. And because there is a resurrection, believers too will be raised. I believe therefore that the “classes” to be raised in their “order” is Christ, in a “class” by Himself, and afterwards believers in Christ, i.e. all believers.
Another argument put forth for the pre-advent resurrection centers around Heb. 12:23 where we read the phrase “the church of the firstborn”. It is suggested that this phrase refers to believers who will be firstborn from the dead, i.e. resurrected before the second coming of Christ.
Before we look at Heb. 12 let us consider the term “firstborn”. It is used two times in Col. 1, in verse 15 and in verse 18, “And He is the Head of the body, the church Who is the beginning, the Firstborn from the dead“. In this verse it is clear that it is Christ Who is the firstborn from the dead, i.e. the first to be resurrected.
Let us consider the same phrase as it is used in verse 15, “Who is the image of the invisible God, the “Firstborn of every creature“. Verses 16-17 go on to tell us why Christ is referred to as the “firstborn” in verse 15, “For by Him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things ere created by Him, and for Him, and He is before all things, and by Him all things consist”. This context has nothing to do with His resurrection. And Christ, was not born until He was born to Mary. That is to say, the phrase “firstborn” in this context does not refer to Christ being born before anything else in creation, nor does it refer to the fact that Christ was raised first from the grave. It refers, in my opinion, to Christ’s preeminence in all creation. That is to say, in the Hebrew culture of the Old and New Testament times, the firstborn son had the preeminence over all other children born to that family. So, in Col. 1:15 the term “firstborn” is used to indicate that Jesus Christ has the preeminence over all creation. (Please see the paper on this web-site “Firstborn”: Was Christ Born Before Any One Else?” for a more complete discussion of this question.)
We are now ready to study the context of Heb. 12:23. In verse 18 we read, “For we are not come to the mount that might be touched, and that burned with fire, nor unto blackness, and darkness, and tempest”. This obviously refers to the mount of Moses’ time. In verses 22-23 we read of the contrast between that mount and the mount Sion of the future, “But ye are come unto the mount Sion, and unto the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem, and to to an innumerable company of angels, to the general assembly and church of the firstborn which are written in the heaven and to God the Judge of all, and to the spirits of just men made perfect”. The question we must ask ourselves is: does the context point to resurrection, or does it point to preeminence in its use of the term “firstborn”? There is nothing about resurrection in this entire context. And the contrast is made with the mount of Moses’ time and the heavenly Jerusalem wherein all things are magnificent. Therefore, I believe it is clear that the term “firstborn” in this context refers to preeminence.
Because the phrase “church of the firstborn” does not refer to the firstborn from the dead, how are we to understand this phrase? I believe the answer to that question lies in the fact that the word “of” indicates the Genitive of Possession. That is to say, the phrase tell us that the church belongs to Christ, Who is the firstborn, i.e. is preeminent. It is Christ who is the firstborn, i.e. preeminent, and the church is Christ’s. To suggest that it is the church that is the firstborn from the dead is not consistent with the context.
In short, there is no Scriptural evidence to suggest a pre-advent resurrection, and that being the case, I must respectfully disagree with those who say that there is. If there is no pre-advent resurrection then David will not reign in a pre-advent kingdom of Heaven, believers will not be resurrected for a pre-advent kingdom of heaven and Ezekiel chapter 37, which speaks of resurrection, speaks of a resurrection for the millennial reign which will be established after the return of Christ.
UNTIL I MAKE THINE ENEMIES THY FOOTSTOOL
We read in Ps. 110:1, “The Lord said unto my Lord, ‘Sit Thou at My right hand, until I make thine enemies Thy footstool‘”. Those that believe in the pre-advent kingdom of Heaven believe that Christ will be in heaven until His enemies have been conquered. This is, of course, exactly what Ps. 110:1 teaches. But their argument continues that there must be an age before the coming of Christ in which His enemies are conquered. That age, they believe is the pre-advent kingdom of Heaven.
The problem with that argument is that it is not supported by Scripture. But we do know that Christ’s enemies must be conquered before Christ returns. Rev. 19:11- tells us exactly when His enemies will be conquered, i.e. at His coming. “And I saw heaven opened, and behold, a white horse; and He That sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness He doth judge and make war………And the armies which were in heaven followed Him upon white horses, clothed in fine lined, white and clean. And out of His mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it He should smite the nations; and He shall rule them with a rod of iron: and He treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God, …….and I saw the beast, and the kings of the earth, and their armies, gathered together to make war against Him That sat on the horse, and against His army. …..and the remnant were slain with the sword of Him That sat upon the horse, which sword proceeded out of His mouth; and all the fowls were filled with their flesh”
We have in this passage a description of the battle that will be fought by Christ and His army at His coming against His enemies. His enemies will be conquered at His coming. Therefore, because we are told exactly when Christ’s enemies will be conquered, i.e. at His second coming, there is no need to assume an age not mentioned anywhere in Scripture, in which His enemies will be conquered.
(It is true that death will not be conquered until after the millennial reign, but the context of Ps. 110 is clearly not speaking of death, it is speaking of the nations of the earth. Also, because death is clearly not conquered until after the millennial reign, the conquering of death does not impact on the question of when the kingdom of Heaven will be established.)
“THE HEAVEN IS MY THRONE”
Is. 66:1, Thus saith the Lord, ‘The heaven is My throne, and the earth is My footstool'”. This verse is said to prove that God will reign from heaven for the pre-advent kingdom of Heaven. But is this passage talking about the kingdom of Heaven? I believe not.
Note verse 3 of Is. 66, “….he that burneth incense, as if he blessed an idol. Yea, they have chosen their own ways, and their soul delighteth in their abominations“. Verse 4 continues, “I also will choose their delusions, and will bring their fears upon them; because when I called, none did answer; when I spake, they did not hear: but they did evil before Mine eyes, and chose that in which I delighted not”.
Bearing in mind that the new covenant, which states that Israel will have their hearts and minds filled with the law of Moses, will be in effect in the kingdom of Heaven, I believe we may conclude that this passage does not speak of the kingdom of Heaven. It refers, in my opinion, to Isaiah’s time, when Israel was so rebellious that they were about to be led away into 70 years of captivity. But it was true that the heaven was the Lord’s throne, even then.
But the argument is made that towards the end of the supposed pre-advent kingdom of heaven, Israel will not remain faithful and therefore Is. 66:1 speaks of the end of that kingdom. Let us consider that point.
In the paper on this web-site The Kingdom Of Heaven I give the Scriptural reasons for my belief that the kingdom of heaven is Christ’s reign in and over Israel. There is sufficient Scriptural evidence provided in that paper to prove that outside the land of Israel there will be none of the blessings enjoyed by those inside the land. And, furthermore, only the righteous will be allowed inside the land of Israel for the kingdom of Heaven. One of the proofs of that statement is found in Ezek. 20 where we read of the gathering of Israel and we read in verse 38, “And I will purge out from among you the rebels, and them that transgress against Me: I will bring them forth out of the country where they sojourn, and they shall not enter into the land of Israel.…”. Consider also Matt. 13:43, “Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father….”.
Furthermore, we are told that even some who may have been allowed entrance at first, will not remain in Jerusalem. Ps. 101:8 tells us that the land will be cleansed of all who are evildoers. “Every morning I will put to silence all the wicked in the land; I will cut off every evildoer from the city of the Lord”.
That being the case, Is. 66:1 which speaks of the wicked and those who commit abominations can not possibly refer to those in the kingdom of Heaven, because the wicked will be cut off from the land.
THE COMING OF ELIJAH BEFORE THE DAY OF THE LORD
We read in Mal. 4:5-6, “Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the coming of the great and dreadful day of the Lord: and he shall turn the heart of the fathers to the children, and the heart of the children to their fathers,. lest I come and smite the earth with a curse”. The argument has been put forth that this passage tells us that Elijah will come before the day of the Lord to establish the kingdom of Heaven. Because Christ will return after the day of the Lord, this passage is taken to prove that the kingdom of Heaven will be established before His return.
In order to come to a correct understanding of this passage we must be clear that the day of the Lord is not the tribulation, it follows the tribulation. How do we know that? Consider Matthew 24:29, “Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken”. These are, of course heavenly signs of monumental proportions, and reason will not allow them to appear more than once. The question is: when will they appear? We are told that they will appear “immediately after” the tribulation. As we consider Joel 2:30-31 which speaks of the day of the Lord we will see these same catastrophic signs in heaven. “And I will shew wonders in the heavens and in the earth, blood, and fire, and pillars of smoke, the sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before the great and the terrible day of the Lord come“. Let us compare the events described in Matthew 24 as coming immediately after the tribulation with the events described in Joel as coming before the day of the Lord.
In Matthew we read that the sun will be darkened. In Joel we read that ” the sun shall be turned into darkness”.
In Matthew we read that “moon shall not give her light“. In Joel we read that the “moon” will be turned “into blood“.
To be sure there are more signs given in Matthew than in Joel, but I believe that Matthew refers to the same event as does Joel, i.e. before the day of the Lord. If these signs appear immediately after the tribulation, and before the day of the Lord, obviously the tribulation is not the same event as the day of the Lord.
So the sequence of events is: the tribulation, followed “immediately” by the catastrophic signs that precede the day of the Lord, followed by the day of the Lord, followed by the appearance of Christ in the clouds.
Now that we have established the sequence of events we are ready to discuss the thought that Elijah’s coming will be to establish the supposed pre-advent kingdom before the day of the Lord and before the second coming of Christ.
Let us review exactly what Mal. 4:5-6 tells us that Elijah will come to do. “……he shall turn the heart of the fathers to the children, and the heart of the children to their fathers”. Note the very limited ministry assigned to Elijah. He will be sent to turn the children to their fathers and fathers to their children. This does not, in my opinion, equate to establishing a kingdom. Putting that aside for the moment, we must determine when Elijah will be sent to do this, i.e. before or after the tribulation.
I believe Mark 13:12 will shed some light on our question as to when parents and children will be called upon to turn back to each other. The question is asked of the Lord in Mark 13:4, “what shall be the sign when all these things shall be fulfilled”. This is obviously a reference to the end times and more specifically to the last seven years of Daniel’s seventy sevens. A comparison of the events described in Mark 13:5-13 with those of Matthew 24:7-14 will show that the period referred to is the time just before the tribulation described in Matthew as “the beginning of sorrows”. In Mark 13:12 we read of the terrible relationships between fathers and children brought on by these “beginning of sorrows”, which immediately precedes the tribulation. “Now the brother shall betray the brother to death, and the father the son; and the children shall rise up against their parents, and shall cause them to be put to death”.
There are three reasons for my belief that Elijah will come during the tribulation, immediately before the day of the Lord. And that he will not come to set up a kingdom, but to bring fathers and children back to each other after the “time of sorrows” when they will have turned against each other.
1) The most obvious reading of Elijah’s coming “before” the day of the Lord is that he will come just prior to it, not hundreds of years before it.
2) We are told that just before the tribulation fathers and children will turn against each other. I believe we may conclude, therefore, that Elijah will come just before the day of the Lord to bring children and fathers back to each other.
3) We are told exactly what Elijah will be sent to do, and it does not begin to describe the establishing of a pre-advent kingdom.
But how are we to understand Mark 9:12 where we read, “And he answered and told them, ‘Elias verily cometh first, and restoreth all things…..”? Does the phrase “restoreth all things” refer to the restoration of the kingdom to Israel, or is it to be understood as the all things for which Elias will be sent to accomplish? I believe the answer to that question is to be found in Acts 1:6, “When they therefore were come together, they asked of Him, saying, ‘Lord, wilt Thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel?’ ” The same Greek word is used in Acts 1:6 that is used in Mark 9:12 that is translated “restoreth” in Mark and “restore” in Acts. My point is this: if Elias was to restore all things then the question would have been, “when will you send Elias to restore all things”? But what the disciples actually asked was “wilt Thou at this time restore again …..”. In short, the phrase “restoreth all things” does not refer to the kingdom.
Let us consider what will be restored. Certainly the restoration of the temple is included in the “restoration of all things” and Elijah will not restore the temple, Christ will (Zech. 6:12). In short, there is no Scriptural evidence to conclude that Elijah will be sent to accomplish anything other than what we are told, i.e. to “turn the heart of the fathers to the children, and the heart of the children to their fathers”.
We have already seen the Scriptural evidence for the fact that Elias will be sent prior to the day of the Lord. We are told quite specifically what Elias will be sent to do, i.e. turn the hearts of children to parents and parents to children. For those two reasons I don’t believe we may conclude that Elias will be sent hundreds of years before the day of the Lord, he will be sent just prior to it. And I don’t believe that when he comes he will restore the kingdom to Israel, he will do what he will be sent to do. The phrase “restoreth all things” in Mark 9 must be understood in the light of Mal. 4:5-6.
THE PARABLES OF THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN
No study of the kingdom of Heaven is complete without a study of the parables of the kingdom of Heaven. Let us begin that study with the parable of Matthew 13:24-30 which is explained in verses 37-43. Let us concentrate on our Lord’s explanation of the parable. “….He that soweth the good seed is the Son of man; the field is the world; the good seed are the children of the kingdom; but the tares are the children of the wicked one; the enemy that sowed them is the devil; the harvest is the end of the world and the reapers are the angels. As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of the age. The Son of Man shall send forth His angels and the shall gather out of His kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity; and shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth. Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father…..”.
One argument put forth by some who believe in the pre-advent kingdom of Heaven is based on this parable, as well as others, which will be discussed. The argument is that according to the parable, during the kingdom of Heaven the good and bad seed are sown, and at the end of the kingdom of Heaven the Son of Man shall send forth His angels and separate the good from the bad.
The problem with that argument is that it does not take into consideration that the parable is not to be taken literally, it is a figure of speech. How do we know that? We know that because in verse 24, when our Lord introduced the parable He began, “The kingdom of Heaven is like….”. The phrase “is like” tells us that it is a simile. Figures of speech are used to enhance a truth. What is the truth that is enhanced by the simile? It is that the good and the bad will be separated at the coming of the Son of Man and that the bad will be weeded out in order that the good will shine forth in righteousness.
The interpretation that this parable is a historical account of what will happen during a pre-advent kingdom does not take into consideration the fact that the parable is not an historical account, it is a figure of speech which enhances a particular truth concerning the kingdom of Heaven.
The parable of the treasure hidden in a field (Matt. 13:44) will illustrate my point that the parables are not meant to be interpreted as literal historical fact. “Again, the kingdom of Heaven is like unto a treasure hid in a field; the which when a man hath found he hideth, and for joy thereof goeth and selleth all that he hath, and buyeth that field”. If we interpret this parable in the same way that some would have us interpret the parable of the seeds, i.e. as an historical event, we would be obligated to say that the parable teaches that during the kingdom of Heaven a man will find a treasure in a field and will sell all he has in order to buy that field. But that is not the truth enhanced by the simile. That truth is, in my opinion, that the kingdom of Heaven will be such a blessing that anyone would sell all he had to enter into it.
Let us continue with the next parable, the parable of the pearls. Matt. 13:45-46, “Again, the kingdom of Heaven is like unto a merchant man, seeking goodly pearls; who, when he had found a pearl of great price, went and sold all that he had, and bought it.” If we would interpret this as an historical account of what will happen during the kingdom of Heaven, as the pre-advent position interprets the parable of the seeds, we must conclude that the parable is teaching that during the kingdom of Heaven a man will sell what he has in order to buy a pearl. In my opinion, the simile is teaching, again, that the kingdom of Heaven will be of such a blessing to all that enter into it, that one would want to sell all he has to participate in those blessings.
In short, we need to be consistent in our interpretations of the parables of the kingdom of heaven. And we must take into consideration the fact that the parables are not an historical account of what will transpire during the kingdom of Heaven, they are similes that emphasize a particular truth concerning the kingdom of Heaven. That being the case, the parables of the kingdom of Heaven do not teach that the kingdom of Heaven will take place before the second coming of Christ.
The parable of the ten virgins is also said to prove a supposed pre-advent kingdom. In this parable we read of ten virgins waiting for the bridegroom to come. Those who hold to the pre-advent kingdom assert that because these virgins are waiting for the bridegroom to come, the kingdom of Heaven must come before the second coming of Christ.
Again the problem is that that argument does not take into account the fact that this parable is a figure of speech. Note in 25:1 where our Lord introduces the parable with the words, “Then shall the kingdom of Heaven be likened to ten virgins”. The parable is not given as an historical account, it is given as a figure of speech that enhances a particular truth concerning the kingdom of Heaven. What is the truth enhanced by this parable? That truth is given in verse 13, “Watch therefore, for you know neither the day nor the hour wherein the Son of Man cometh”.
THE GREEK WORDS USED OF CHRIST’S SECOND COMING
Otis Q. Sellers, who believed in the pre-advent kingdom of God, writes in the Seed And Bread article number 129, the following concerning the Greek words usually taken to refer to the second coming of Christ: “Such prophesied events as the unveiling (apolalusin) of Jesus Christ (I Cor. 1:7), the manifestation (phaneroo) of Jesus Christ (I John 3:2 and Col. 3:4), the presentation of Jesus Christ (I Thess. 4:14), the blazing forth (epiphaneia) of His glory……….are all divine actions that take place at the commencement of divine government upon the earth, marked by line 4 on the chart”. Line four on the chart is marked, “The Kingdom Of God, A Time Of Divine Government”. Line five is the tribulation. This tells us that according to this view, the kingdom of God precedes the tribulation and the second coming of Christ to earth. Line six denotes the millennium which is described as “The Personal Presence Of Jesus Christ, The Parousia“. In other words, Mr. Sellers is saying that the parousia will not be at the same time as the epiphaneia. That is, that the epiphaneia is one of the events that will take place before the tribulation and the millennium. And the parousia will take place after the tribulation.
But, I believe that as we consider II Thess. 2:8 we shall see that the parousia will take place at the same time as the epiphaneia.That would mean that “epiphaneia” refers to the time of Christ’s personal presence on earth, and it would essentially, in my opinion, rule out a pre-advent kingdom of God from which Christ will rule from heaven.
We read in II Thess. 2:8, “And then shall the wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of His mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of His coming“. The Greek word translated “brightness” is “epiphaneia”, and the Greek word translated “coming” is “parousia”. This verse connects the epiphaneia with the parousia as occurring at the same time. It is through Christ’s epiphaneia that the “wicked” will be destroyed.
When is this epiphaneia to occur? That question is answered once we determine who is the “wicked”, and when he will be destroyed. The wicked is referred to in verses 3-4 as “the man of sin”, and “the son of perdition, who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the Temple of God, shewing himself that he is God”. This man is, of course, the antichrist. When will the antichrist be destroyed? Certainly not before the tribulation.
We have learned that the epiphaneia will take place at the same time as the parousia, and that that will be after the tribulation. That being the case, the epiphaneia is not one of the “divine events that takes place at the commencement of divine government upon the earth” which Mr. Sellers asserts, is before the tribulation and is before the second coming of Christ.
The Greek word “phaneroo” also occurs at the time of His second coming. We read in I John 2:28. “And now, dear children, continue in Him, so that when he appears (phaneroo) we may be confident and unashamed before him at his coming (parousia)”. So we have Scriptural evidence that connects the epiphaneia and the phaneroo to the parousia. Here again, this connection proves that those two divine events will not be years before the second coming of Christ, but at the time of His second coming.
Because the epiphaneia and the phaneroo are events that are connected to the parousia, i.e. the second coming of Christ to earth, we cannot see them as events that take place before His second coming, and therefore cannot be seen as events that have to do with a pre-advent kingdom of God.
WAS ACTS TWO THE BEGINNING OF THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN?
We have in Acts chapter two Peter’s quote of Joel two. Those who believe in the pre-advent kingdom believe that Acts two is the beginning of the pre-advent kingdom. That would mean that the kingdom began while Christ was seated in heaven. If this is true, this would help to prove that the pre-advent kingdom will be established before the second coming of Christ, i.e. while Christ is in heaven. The question is, however, was Joel chapter two fulfilled at Pentecost? I believe it was not. I believe that Peter’s point in quoting Joel was to answer the accusation that those who were speaking in tongues were drunk. Peter said, in effect, “why are you so surprised at this miracle when Joel speaks of so much more than these”. Because this is a very important topic in our study, I beg the reader’s indulgence in this very lengthy presentation of the events of Acts two in regard to Joel’s prophecy.
A Look At The Old Testament Teachings Of The Feast Of Weeks, Pentecost
The gathering of Israel to Jerusalem as recorded in Acts, chapter two was, of course to celebrate the “feast of weeks”, i.e. Pentecost. A very brief consideration of that feast as given in the Old Testament will help in our correct understanding of the events of Acts two.
Lev. 23:15-21, “And ye shall count unto you from the morrow after the Sabbath, from the day that ye brought the sheaf of the wave offering; seven Sabbaths shall be complete: Even unto the morrow after the seventh Sabbath shall ye number fifty days; and ye shall offer a new meat offering unto the Lord. Ye shall bring out of your habitations two wave loaves of two tenth meals: they shall be of fine flour; they shall be baked with leaven; they are the firstfruits unto the Lord. And ye shall offer with the bread seven lambs without blemish of the first year, and one bullock, and two rams: they shall be for a burnt offering unto the Lord, with their meat offering, and their drink offerings, even an offering made by fire, of sweet savour unto the Lord. Then ye shall sacrifice one kid of the goats for a sin offering and two lambs of the first year for a sacrifice of peace offerings. And the priest shall wave them with the bread of the firstfruits for a wave offering before the Lord, with the two lambs: they shall be holy to the Lord for the priest. And ye shall proclaim on the selfsame day, that it may be an holy convocation unto you: ye shall do not servile work therein; it shall be a statute for ever in all your dwellings throughout your generations.”.
What we have learned from this passage, which is the most comprehensive passage in the Bible about the feast of weeks, is that 1) it is fifty days from the feast of firstfruits, 2) sacrifices are to be offered, and 3) there is to be a holy convocation.
A Comparison of Joel’s Prophecy With The Events Of Acts 2
We will begin the comparison of Joel’s prophecy with the events of Acts 2 by examining just what the events were that occurred at the convocation to celebrate the feast of weeks.
Acts 2:1-4, “And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place. And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting and there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. and they were all filled with the holy ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance”.
I think it would be helpful to list these events in order to facilitate a comparison with Joel 2.
1) “a rushing mighty wind”
2) “cloven tongues, like as of fire”
3) “filled with the holy ghost”
4) “began to speak in other tongues”
Now let us examine the prophecy of Joel which Peter quoted that day.
Acts 2:17-18 is a record of the prophecy that is said, by many, to have been “partially fulfilled” at the celebration of the feast of weeks. “And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, ‘I will pour out of My Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy and your young men shall see visions and your old men shall dream dreams. And on My servants and on My handmaidens I will pour out in those days of My spirit and they shall prophecy’ “.
Below is the list of things prophesied in the passage quoted from Joel.
1) “I will pour out my Spirit upon all flesh”
2) “Your sons and daughters will prophesy”
3) “your young men will see visions”
4) “your old men shall dream dreams”
5) “On My servants and on My handmaidens I will pour out in those days of My spirit and they shall prophecy”.
Even the most cursory comparison of the events of Acts 2 with the prophecy of Joel 2 will reveal that there is only one thing in common, i.e. the spirit of the Lord was poured out. But, as we look in the Old and New Testaments, we shall see that even that is not really a commonality. I say that because the Bible makes it clear that the holy spirit was poured out on individuals for a very specific purpose. So, when we read, for example that Samson was filled with the spirit in order to defend himself from an attacking lion, it is not the same as when Bezalel was filled with the spirit to make artistic designs for the tent of meetings. But let us look at just some of the occurrences of when individuals were filled with the holy spirit to prove that point from scripture.
Exodus 31:3, “and I have filled him (Bezalel) with the Spirit of God, with the skill, ability and knowledge in all kinds of crafts- to make artistic designs for work in gold, silver and bronze.”
Numbers 11:17, “I will come down and speak with you there, and I will take of the Spirit that is on you and put the Spirit on them. They will help you carry the burden of the people so that you will not have to carry it alone”.
Judges 3:10, “The Spirit of the Lord came upon him so he became a judge of Israel and went to war“.
Judges 11:29, “Then the Spirit of the Lord came upon Jephthah. He crossed Gilead ….he advanced against the Ammonites”.
Judges 14:6, “The Spirit of the Lord came upon him with power so that he tore the lion apart with his bare hands”.
Judges 15:14,”….The Spirit of the Lord come upon him in power. The ropes on his arms became like charred flax and the bindings dropped from his hands”.
I Sam. 11:6, “When Saul heard their words the Spirit of God came upon him and he burned with anger“. This verse also shows that the spirit enabled Saul to accomplish God’s will. In this case it was to save His people, Israel from being disgraced.
II Chron.20:14, “Then the Spirit of God came upon Jahaziel …. . He said … .” This is but one example of the many, many times where the spirit of God came upon an individual allowing power to prophesy.
The New Testament is no different. That is to say, in the New Testament when one is filled with the holy spirit, it is also for the purpose of completing a specific work that God has for him or her. Let us consider a few events recorded in the New Testament of one being filled with the holy spirit.
Luke 1:67, “His father Zechariah was filled with the Holy Spirit and prophesied“.
John 20:22, “And with that He breathed on them and said, ‘Receive the Holy Spirit. ….If you forgive anyone his sins, they are forgiven.”.
Acts 2:4, “All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them”.
Acts 4:8, “Then Peter, filled with the Holy Spirit said,…”.
The point I am trying to make in presenting these passages is that, just as we cannot say that the empowering of Samson, who fought a lion, was the same as the empowering of Jephthah, who led Israel to war, so too we cannot say that the empowering by the Holy Spirit to speak in tongues (Acts 2) is the same as the empowering to dream dreams and see visions (Joel 2). Therefore, we are left to conclude that the prophecy of Joel 2 had absolutely nothing in common with the events of Acts 2. That being the case, I see no reason to conclude that Joel 2 was “partially fulfilled” at Acts 2.
But some might object that Peter began his quote of Joel by saying, “This is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel”. How can we account for that statement considering that it was certainly not what had been prophesied in Joel 2? E.W. Bullinger, in his Appendix number183 in the Companion Bible has the following: “The word ‘this’ is emphatic and the word ‘But’, with which Peter’s argument begins, sets what follows in contrast”. Dr. Bullinger goes on in the next paragraph to suggest: “He (Peter) does not say ‘then was fulfilled’, nor ‘as it is written’, but merely calls attention to what the prophet said of similar scenes yet future“. Dr. Bullinger suggests that Peter was saying in effect “that the same kind of thing as what Joel speaks of is happening now”.
In other words, the reason Peter quoted Joel was not because Joel’s prophecy was then being fulfilled or even “partially fulfilled”. The reason was to say that these are not drunk and you men of Israel should know that because the same kind of things are spoken of by Joel.
But let us go to the next section of this paper for further evidence of the veracity of this suggestion.
A LOOK AT JOEL’S PROPHECY
When Peter quoted Joel chapter 2, he began with the words, “And it shall come to pass in the last days“. Joel was a bit more specific. In Joel 2:28, which is the beginning of the prophecy Peter quoted, we read, “And afterward I will pour out my spirit….”. Peter’s phrase, “the last days” is correct, of course. But Joel is more specific as to when in the last days they might see the things quoted, i.e. dreams and visions. Let us therefore, examine Joel two to see if we might learn more about when to expect these signs.
Joel 2:1 begins with a prophecy concerning the “day of the Lord“. “…….for the day of the Lord cometh, it is nigh at hand”. The prophecy concerning the day of the Lord continues through verse 11, But at the end of verse 11 there is a break in the prophecy about the day of the Lord, and we read in verse 12, “Therefore also now, saith the Lord, turn ye even to Me, with all your heart, and with fasting, and with weeping and with mourning”. This plea for repentance continues through verse 17. In verse 18-27 we read what will be the consequence of Israel’s repentance. We read in verse 26, “….never again will My people be ashamed”. This tells us that these verse speak of the millennium.
To recap what has been presented thus far: verses 1-11 are about the day of the Lord. Verses 12 through 17 are a plea to Israel to repent. Verses 18 through 27 speak of the millennium.
We come now to verse 28 which begins the passage that Peter quotes in Acts 2. “And afterward“. After what? Certainly not after the millennium which is the subject of the preceding 10 verses. We must go all the way back to verse 11 in order to determine the “afterward” of verse 28. Verse 11 speaks of the day of the Lord. So then, after the day of the Lord, the signs of which Joel writes will be seen.
So the signs of which Joel writes are to be seen after the day of the Lord. Therefore, when Peter quoted this passage it could not possibly have been fulfilled that day in Acts 2, because that day was obviously not after the day of the Lord.
To make this point more clearly: the signs of which Joel speaks are to be seen after the day of the Lord. When Peter quoted Joel the day of the Lord had not yet occurred. Therefore, Acts 2 can not be the fulfillment of Joel’s prophecy.
Some might object that the interpretation given above jumps from one time period to another. But this is often done in prophecies. Consider for example Ezek. chapters 38 and 39. Verses 1-16 of chapter 38 are post-millennial, as verse 8 will show. “In future years you will invade a land that has recovered from war, whose people were gathered from among nations”. Verses 17-20 are prophecies concerning the day of the Lord, “The mountains will be overturned, the cliffs will crumble and every wall will fall to the ground (verse 20). 39:1-8 is pre-millennial, “I will give you as food to all kinds of carrion birds and to the wild animals” (cmp. Rev. 17:19-21). Verses 9-16 are millennial, “Then those who live in the towns of Israel will go out and use the weapons for fuel and burn them up….”.(verse 9). Verses 17-20 are pre-millennial, “You (birds and wild animals of verse 17) will eat the flesh of mighty men and drink the blood of the princes of the earth….” (verse 19). And verses 21-29 are millennial, “I will now bring Jacob from captivity…” (verse 25).
Zech. 14 is another excellent example of how prophecy often skips from one period to another and back again.. In the space of eight verses (1-8) it goes back and forth from the day of the Lord to the tribulation, to the second coming of Christ, back to the tribulation, and then the second coming, and then the day of the Lord and then finally to the millennium.
The point of this section is that Joel 2, like many other prophecies, is not written in chronological order. And the “afterward” of verse 28 refers to after the day of the Lord. That being the case, Peter could not possibly have meant that Joel’s prophecy was being fulfilled, or even partially fulfilled, because the first part of it will be fulfilled after the day of the Lord.
CONCLUSIONS
Joel’s prophecy had nothing in common with the events of Acts 2, except that in both, men were filled with the holy spirit. But the signs of that filling were totally different and therefore even that similarity is nullified.
Pentecost in no way typifies the events of Acts 2. That is to say, there is nothing in the feast of weeks that has anything to do with the filling of the holy spirit.
Joel two is a prophecy that will be fulfilled in the millennial reign of Christ. It was not partially fulfilled in Acts two and therefore the assertion that Acts 2 was the beginning of the kingdom of Heaven is nullified. Because that is so, there is no scriptural evidence to suggest that Christ will be in heaven for the kingdom of Heaven.
MISCELLANEOUS PASSAGES
Is. 1:2, “Hear, O heavens, and give ear, O earth: for the Lord hath spoken”.
It has been suggested that some passages which speak of God’s speaking from heaven are meant to be understood as yet future despite the tense used. Is. 1:2 is one of those passages. Let us examine that thought and then this passage in particular.
To be sure, it is clear from such passages as Is. 53 that the past and present tenses are, at times used of an event yet future. For example we read in Is. 53:2, He (Christ) shall grow up before Him as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground”. Here the event is future and the tense is future. But this same verse continues, “He hath no form nor comliness”. Here the same Person is spoken of in the present tense even though His birth was a future event when this passage was written. The verse continues, “and when we shall see Him, there is no beauty that we should desire Him”. Here the future event is put in the future and the present tenses. Verse 4 speaks of the same future event in the past tense, “surely He hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrow” and continues in the past tense, “yet we esteemed Him stricken, smitten of God and afflicted“.
It is clear that we may not put too much emphasis on the tense, as the Hebrew writers often wrote of future events in the past and present tenses. How then are we to determine which tense is to be understood? By the context. Sometimes from the immediate context and other times from the context of the entire Bible. For example, because we know that Is. 53 concerns the death of Christ, we know that no matter the tense used, the event was yet future at the time that Isaiah wrote this chapter.
Let us come now to the verse under discussion, i.e. Is. 1:2. It is suggested by those who believe in a pre-advent kingdom that this verse refers to the Lord’s speaking from heaven in the pre-advent kingdom. But I believe that the remainder of verse two, and the following verses tell us otherwise. “I have nourished and brought up children, and they have rebelled against Me”. Consider also verses 3-4, “Israel doth not know, My People doth not consider. Ah sinful nation, a people laden with iniquity, a seed of evildoers, children that are corrupt: they have forsaken the Lord, they have provoked the Holy One of Israel unto anger, they are gone away backward”. These verse do not describe the kingdom of God. They describe the conditions present during Isaiah’s time.
The context of Is. 1:2 shows that this is addressed to a “sinful nation”, that is “laden with iniquity”. But Matt. 13:43 tells us that there is no unrighteousness in the kingdom of heaven. Matt. 13:24 tells us that the parable of the weeds is a parable of the kingdom of Heaven. “The kingdom of Heaven is likened unto”. Verse 43 is the end of our Lord’s explanation of that parable and it tells us that , “Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father”. My point is that where Is. 1:2 tells us that Israel is in a state of unrighteousness, the kingdom of Heaven is just the opposite, i.e. it is inhabited by only the righteous. Therefore, we may not, in my opinion, take Is. 1:2 out of context and apply it to future events, when the context is clearly about the condition present in Isaiah’s time.
Ps. 76:8-9, “Thou didst cause judgment to be heard from heaven; the earth feared, and was still, when God arose to judgment, to save all the meek of the earth”
Another passage that is suggested to prove the pre-advent kingdom of Heaven is Ps. 76:8-9. Here too, it is suggested that it refers to the supposed future pre-advent kingdom despite the use of the past tense. I must confess, I do not find any evidence in this Psalm that proves to my satisfaction if this is a past or a future event. But let’s say for the sake of argument that it is a future event. The question is: when will God cause judgment to “be heard from heaven”; will it be in the pre-advent kingdom? I believe not. Is there a time of judgment in the future?. There certainly is, but it is not in a pre-advent kingdom, it is in the day of the Lord. When will God rise to judgment in the future? In the day of the Lord. When will this judgment save the “meek”? In the day of the Lord. If this is a prophecy to be fulfilled in the future, it will be in the day of the Lord. Therefore, there is no Scriptural evidence to prove that even if the events of Ps. 76:8-9 are future, that it will be in the pre-advent kingdom.
The “meek of the earth” will be saved by the rapture which is just before the day of the Lord. Therefore, there is nothing in this verse that suggests a pre-advent judgment or saving from judgment. (Please see the paper on this web-site An Overview Of End Times Prophecy for the scriptural evidence of that statement.)
Deut. 32:1-2, “Give ear, O ye heavens, and I will speak; and hear, O earth, the words of my mouth; my doctrine shall drop as the rain, my speech shall distill as the dew, and the small rain upon the tender herb, and as the showers upon the grass”.
The suggestion is made that this passage is saying that the Lord will speak from heaven, and that He will speak in a yet future supposed pre-advent kingdom. But is that really what this passage is saying? I believe not. If we look at the preceding verse, i.e. Deut. 31:30, we read, “And Moses spake in the ears of all the congregation of Israel the words of this song, until they were ended”. This passage is what Moses spoke to Israel while on earth, not what the Lord will speak from heaven. See also 32:3, “Because I will publish the name of the Lord; ascribe ye greatness unto our God, He is the rock, His work is perfect”. This is not the Lord’s speech, it is Moses’ speech to Israel. Therefore, this verse is not about God speaking in a pre-advent kingdom, it is Moses telling the heavens to “give ear”.
THE WRITINGS OF O.Q. SELLERS
O. Q. Sellers has written several articles on the pre-advent kingdom and no study of this subject would be complete without a consideration of his views. I will quote from his article titled, The Jigsaw Puzzle of Prophecy. “I became convinced that ‘the great tribulation’ was to be a time of divine testing which would try every man that dwells upon the earth (Rev. 3:10). Then when I considered the state of men upon the earth today, their abject failure in all matters related to God, it seemed to me to be the height of folly to try that which is such an obvious failure”.
Let me say first that the paper on this web-site The Tribulation Is Not World Wide gives the Scriptural evidence for my belief that the tribulation will not be world wide, but it will come upon the “oikoumenee”, i.e. the inhabited world (i.e. Israel and the countries surrounding Israel) to test Israel. Rev. 3:10 reads, “Because thou hast kept the word of My patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of temptation (the Companion Bible has “trial”, i.e. the tribulation) which shall come upon all the oikoumenee (the inhabited world) to try them that dwell upon the ge (Land, i.e. Israel)”.
The question is then: will God test Israel when She is in an abject state of apostasy and without warning? I believe that He will not. Let me explain.
To begin with, the tribulation is to test Israel. Revelation is the most Israel centered book in the New Testament. Therefore, I believe that the seven letters of Rev. chapters 2-3 are addressed to Jewish “churches”. Consider also Rev. 3:9, “Behold, I will make them of the synagogue of Satan, which say they are Jews, and are not, but do lie…..”. Why would non-Jews say they are Jews? Throughout the past 20 centuries, Jews have been persecuted, it makes no sense that non-Jews would claim to be Jews. If the seven letters of Revelation are addressed to believing Jews, obviously Israel will not be in a state of “abject failure” as Mr. Sellers suggested.
Now let’s consider whether God will give a warning to Israel that the tribulation is near at hand. We read in Dan. 11:4-20 of events that have been estimated to occur over a period of approximately 40 years. Unfortunately, verses 4-20 are often said to have been fulfilled by Alexander the Great and others who lived at a time not covered in the Bible. The problem with that interpretation is that we have Scripture being interpreted, not by Scripture, but by secular historians. And in this case the Scriptural evidence is there which, in my opinion, proves that the entire chapter is a prophecy which will be fulfilled in the end times. (Please see the paper on this web-site Have Any Of The Prophecies Of Daniel Eleven Been Fulfilled? for the Scriptural evidence which proves that this entire chapter is a prophecy of the end times.)
Because there will be at least some believers in Israel in the last days, and because there will be the fulfillment of prophecy some 40 years before the tribulation, I believe that the suggestion that the testing of Israel will be “the height of folly” as Mr. Sellers suggests is not supported by Scripture. Surely, as Israel sees end times prophecy being fulfilled for 40 years before the tribulation they will take warning from those prophecies that the tribulation is coming upon them.
On a similar note, Mr. Sellers quotes Ps. 67:4 which states that Christ will govern the nations and asks “Does He govern these nations after He has destroyed their people or before? and there can be only one answer. There is nothing left to govern after the people have been destroyed. Passages like this indicate a time of divine government before the return of Christ…….”. II Thess. 1:7-10 does indeed speak of “destruction from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of His power”. However, where Mr. Sellers wrote, “Does He govern these nations after He has destroyed their people ” he fails to distinguish between nations and the people of the nations. That is to say, it is one thing to destroy a nation and quite another to destroy its people. For example, we read in Isaiah 60:3, “Nations will come to your light and kings to the brightness of your dawn”. Surely in this verse “nations” do not refer to every person in the nations. That would mean that several billions of people will come to tiny Jerusalem. No, I believe that in Is. 60:3 “nations” refers to the rulers of the nations and that a distinction must be made between the nations and the people of the nations according to the context and common sense.
HOSEA TWO
In the same article Mr. Sellers writes of Hosea 2:14-23, “There I found all the support that one who believes the Word could ask. The pertinent passage is Hosea 2:14-23 ……”. Hosea 2:14-23 reads, “Therefore behold, I will allure her, and bring her into the wilderness, and speak comfortably unto her. and I will give her vineyards from thence, and the valley of Achor for a door of hope: and she shall sing there, as in the days of her youth, and as in the day when she came up out of the land of Egypt. And it shall be at that day, saith the Lord, that thou shalt call me ‘Ishi’; and shalt call Me no more ‘Baali’. For I will take away the names of Baalim out of her mouth, and they shall no more be remembered by their name. And in that day will I make a covenant for them with the beast of the field, and with the fowls of heaven, and with the creeping things of the ground: and I will break the bow and the sword and the battle out of the earth, and will make them to lie down safely. and I will betroth thee unto Me in faithfulness: and thou shalt know the Lord. and it shall come to pass in that day, I will hear saith the Lord, I will hear the heavens, and they shall hear the earth; and the earth shall hear the corn, and the wind, and the oil; and they shall hear Jezreel. And I will sow her unto Me in the earth; and I will have mercy upon her that had not obtained mercy; and I will say to them which were not My People, ‘Thou art My People’; and they shall say, ‘Thou art my God'”.
Mr. Sellers says of this passage, “These words declare the future of Israel, and all this is in advance of the great tribulation as is seen in the promise that Jehovah will give her ‘the valley of Achor for a door of hope’. The name ‘Achor’ means troubler. When Israel is in the place of blessing described in Hosea 2:15, she will look ahead and see the greatest pressure that the nation had ever known, a time of testing that will put to the test all who dwell upon the earth. This is a valley through which she must pass as she travels upon her foreordained way from the pre-advent kingdom to the thousand years of the personal presence of Christ”.
Mr. Sellers begins the discussion of Hosea 2 by claiming that it gives “all the support that any one….could need” for his position. I must admit, I don’t see any support for his position in Hosea two. This passage tells us that there will be a time when God will gather Israel into the desert and bring them to Himself. Is there any evidence in this passage that this will happen ” in advance of the great tribulation”? May I respectfully suggest that the reader reread the passage from Hosea two. I found no such evidence. In fact there is evidence in verse 18 which, in my opinion proves that this gathering of Israel will take place after the tribulation. Let us consider part of that verse. “and I will break the bow and the sword and the battle out of the earth”. I understand this promise to mean that there will be no more battles, I see no other interpretation. If the Lord makes a promise to these Israelites that there will be no more battles, and the tribulation is obviously a battle, it seems to me that this proves that the gathering spoken of in Hosea two is after the tribulation. It is true that after the millennial reign there will be a revolt, but those gathered around Jerusalem to attack that city will be destroyed at once, that is to say, that will not be a battle.
Therefore, far from Hosea two proving the pre-advent kingdom of Heaven, I believe it disproves it.
THE SEVENTY WEEKS OF DANIEL CHAPTER NINE
It is a well known fact that there are many interpretations of the ninth chapter of Daniel where we read the prophecy of the seventy weeks. Not the least of the problems associated with that prophecy is where the Acts period fits into those seventy weeks. The pre-advent kingdom doctrine does offer an explanation, but it is based on the kingdom of Heaven occurring before the return of Christ, which, I hope I have shown is based on arguments that are, in my opinion, unscriptural.
The pre-advent view states that the 70 weeks have not yet begun. The views expressed in the paper on this web-site Daniel’s Seventy Weeks will give the Scriptural evidence for my belief that the seventy weeks began when the Holy Spirit said it would begin, i.e. at the “issuing of the commandment to rebuild the city” and at the same time accounts for the Acts period. I respectfully urge the reader to read that paper, as it does greatly impact on the teaching of the supposed pre-advent kingdom of Heaven.
This paper was written by Joyce Pollard. If you would like to respond to it, please e-mail me at: [email protected]
HOME